Psychology Exam Model paper Objective Questions

Psychology Exam Model paper Objective Questions
Free Sample Objective Questions on Psychology
1 Which of the following statement is FALSE? Incentives—
(A) Are external stimuli acting on the organism?
(B) Direct behavior
(C) Are not motivators of behavior?
(D) Arouse the organism
Ans. (C)

2. Motives cannot be—
(A) Inferred from behavior
(B) Observed directly
(C) Used to explain behavior
(D) Used to predict behavior
Ans. (B)

3. According to double-depletion hypothesis there are two physiological reasons of thirst. They are—
(a) Hypovolemia
(b) Cellular dehydration
(c) Increase in blood sugar
(d) Arousal of osmoreceptors
Reply on these codes—
(A) a and d
(B) b and c
(C) d and b
(D) b and a
Ans. (D)

4. The strongest among the following motives is—
(A) Self assertion
(B) Self preservation
(C) Social approval
(D) Love
Ans. (B)

5. The .body’s tendency to maintain a balance among its internal physiological states and the environment is termed—
(A) Ambivalence
(B) Homeostasis
(C) Homeostasis
(D) Cognitive dissonance
Ans. (C)

6. There are some people—who fulfilled their power needs by using other people. Christie and Geis. 1970 gave them a special
term, which is very famous. The term is—
(A) Machiavellianism
(B) Instrumental aggression
(C) Psychokinesis
(D) Brainstorming
Ans. (A)

7. Which of the following does not represent motives?
(A) Organic needs
(B) Attitudes
(C) Aptitudes
(D) Interests
Ans. (C)

8. The aroused condition of an organism that results from some bodily or tissue deficit is called—
(A) Drive
(B) Motive
(C) Goal
(D) Incentive
Ans. (A)

9. Psychologists believe that when a person is in tension due to high anxiety then in this condition the need for affiliation—.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) remains same
(D) First it increases than decreases
Ans. (B)

10. Injections of insulin will—
(A) Decrease the food intake
(B) Not affect the eating behavior
(C) Increase the food intake
(D) Result in increased activity in the ventromedical cells of hypothalamus
Ans. (C)

11. The most widely known psychologist who studied achievement motivation is—
(A) Atkinson
(B) McClelland and his associates
(C) Hoyenga and Hoyenga
(D) Fernald and Fernald
Ans. (B)

12. Obesity in normal animals can be induced by—
(A) Social factors
(B) External stimuli
(C) Lesions in the ventromedical hypothalamus
(D) All of the above
Ans. (C)

13. A person who is alcoholic, he feels pleasure when he drinks, but when he becomes normal he feels bad. This fact
describes—
(A) Opponent-process theory
(B) Cognitive theory
(C) Incentive theory
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)

14. The relationship between fear and affiliation motive is—
(A) Negative
(B) Zero
(C) Only slightly negative
(D) Positive
Ans. (D)

15. The changes in achievement need come about—
(A) 50 years after changes in economic activity.
(B) 50 years before changes in economic activity.
(C) At the same as the changes in economic activity.
(D) 75 years after changes in economic activity.
Ans. (B)

16. Food intake in obese people is markedly affected by—
(A) Fear
(B) Stomach contraction cues
(C) Taste and small cues
(D) All of the above
Ans. (C)

17. Stop talking to someone is an example of—
(A) Verbal-active-direct
(B) Verbal-active-indirect
(C) Verbal-passive indirect
(D) Verbal-passive-direct
Ans. (D)

18. Match list 1 with list 2—
List I
(a) Murray needs theory
(b) Homey theory
(c) McCelland theory
List II
1. Fear of failure
2. Self respect
3. Equality in traits
4. Security
Codes—
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 1
(D) 4 3 1
Ans. (C)

19. Specific hunger result from—
(A) Nutritional deficits
(B) Ethnic and cultural influences
(C) Past experiences
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

20. Correlation of achievement scores and performance in college (college grade) is found to be—
(A) Low and negative
(B) Erratic
(C) Low and positive
(D) High and positive
Ans. (B)

21. People with high need for achievement prefer tasks that are—
(A) Moderately difficult
(B) Not difficult
(C) Very difficult
(D) Impossible
Ans. (A)

22. The things that we learn to fear are—
(A) Primary goals
(B) Primary negative goals
(C) Secondary negative goals
(D) Punishment
Ans. (C)

23. Who said that the behaviors of human beings are motivated and controlled by the instincts of Eros and Thanato?
(A) McDougall
(B) Freud
(C) William James
(D) Woodworth
Ans. (B)

24. Which of the following statement is FALSE? Exploration, competence and self-actualization motives are?
(A) Difficult so satisfy
(B) Part of the human and animal species heritage
(C) Powerful and persistent even in lower animal species
(D) Innate
Ans. (C)

25. Starting from the lowest needs to higher order needs, the needs in Maelow’s hierarchy are—
(A) n. physiological, n. safety, n.belongingness, n. understanding, n. self actualization
(B) n. physiological, n. safety, n. belongingness, n. esteem, n. self actualization
(C) n. physiological, n. belongingness, n. safety, n. esteem, n. self actualisation.
(D) n. safety, n. esteem, n. understanding, n. control, n. self actualization
Ans. (B)

UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper:Psychology

UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper:Psychology
UGC NET Psychology Sample Questions with answers
1. Memory and retention test reveal two different aspect of learning according to—
(A) Michael J. Howe
(B) Underwood
(C) Adams
(D) Banks
Ans. (B)

2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) When forgetting does occur, most of the loss occurs soon after learning
(B) There is marked forgetting of more technical and advanced scientific material that in little used in everyday life.
(C) Forgetting is slower but steady after the initial fall which is very fast
(D) The material overlearnt is never forgotten.
(E) Material that has been learned and seemingly forgotten is seldom completely forgotten
Ans. (D)

3. Recall of more pleasant items of information if better than that of the less pleasant items. Which of the following is related to this?
(A) Ward-Hovland phenomenon
(B) Pallyana principles
(C) Cue-dependent recall
(D) Trace-dependent recall
Ans. (B)

4. The most popular memory span material consist of—
(A) Words
(B) Figures
(C) Numbers
(D) Objects
Ans. (C)

5. Memory span is affected by—
(A) Sex
(B) Age
(C) Neither by age nor sex
(D) Both by sex and age
Ans. (D)

6. Which is more widely accepted conclusion of experimental studies on memory?
(A) Memory is a. reconstructive mental process. (Bartlett)
(B) Memory is a reproductive mental process. (Ebbinghaus)
(C) Memory is information stored and maintained permanently in the human brain
(D) Memory is all that is in the brain and can be retrieved.
Ans. (A)

7. With intermittent reinforcement—
(A) Learning is slow
(B) Both learning and forgetting are slow
(C) Forgetting is slow
(D) Both learning and forgetting are fast
Ans. (C)

8. Forgetting is—
(A) An active mental process
(B) A passive mental process
(C) Neither an active nor a passive mental process
(D) An active mental process in some cases and a passive mental process in other
Ans. (D)

9. Retrieval from LTM takes the form of—
(A) Recall
(B) Recognition
(C) Both recall and recognition
(D) Neither of these
Ans. (C)


10. Experiment on visual coding was done by—
(A) Shulman
(B) Posner and Keela
(C) Daberman
(D) Wickens
Ans. (B)

11. According to Woodworth and Scholsberg (1954) memory span method the size of STM is found to be—
(A) 7 ± 2 or 5 to 9
(B) 5 to 13
(C) 2 to 9
(D) 5 to 11
Ans. (A)

12. Learned relationships between stimuli and responses such as stopping the vehicle immediately after seeing the red light are an
Example of—
(A) Episodic memory
(B) Short term memory
(C) Procedural memory
(D) Semantic memory
Ans. (C)

13. All of the following are kinds of long term memory according to Tulving (1972) except—
(A) Sensory memory
(B) Episodic memory
(C) Semantic memory
(D) Procedural
Ans. (A)

14. What is meant by ‘reminiscence’?
(A) Recalling something learned in the past long back.
(B) Recognizing something which was not learned well.
(C) Recalling something intuitionally
(D) A tendency for memory to persist without practice (i.e., stopping the activity as soon as the Childs near mastery)
Ans. (D)

15. Forgetting as an ordinary process takes place because of—
(A) Emotional blocks
(B) Neural disturbances
(C) Atrophy through disuse
(D) Some negative emotions
Ans. (C)

16 Motivation results in—
(A) Goal-directed behavior
(B) Undirected behavior
(C) Excited behavior
(D) Problem solving behavior
Ans. (A)

17 The contractions of muscles in the stomach wall DO NOT—
(A) Activate cells in lateral hypothalamus
(B) Influence hypothalamic control of immediate appetite
(C) Activate thermo receptors in the brain
(D) Result in hunger pangs
Ans. (C)

18. Psychologists have tried to explain the nature of ‘motivation’ by formulating a concept ‘motivation cycle’ which includes all
of the following except—
(A) Need
(B) Drive
(C) Goal
(D) Propensity
Ans. (D)

19. For the human beings the most important triggers of sexual drive are—
(A) Sensory stimuli
(B) Adrenaline level
(C) Hormone levels
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)

20. The drive-reduction theory of motivation explained behavior in terms of—
(A) Restoration of physiological balance in the body.
(B) Internal drives pulling the organism into activity
(C) External stimuli acting as motivators of behavior
(D) Both (A) and (B) but not (C)
Ans. (D)

21. Cannon propounded a theory of thirst in 1932 which is known as—
(A) Cannon’s physiological theory of thirst
(B) Cannon’s inborn theory of thirst.
(C) Cannon’s biological theory of thirst.
(D) Cannon’s theory of thirst.
Ans. (D)

22. A motive or drive give rise to behavior that is—
(A) Goal oriented
(B) Instinctive in nature
(C) Pleasure seeking
(D) Pain avoiding
Ans. (A)


23. All of the following are characteristic of REM sleep except—
(A) In this the individual sees dream and, hence, cannot have deep sleep.
(B) Its beginning studies were made by Aserinsky and Kleitman in 1953.
(C) In children 50% of sleep is REM sleep, in the young people it remains only 20% of the total sleep.
(D) Percentage of REM sleep decreases with growing age.
(E) In this eyes remain closed and eye ball do not move.
Ans. (E)

24. Sensory stimuli can arouse the following drive states—
(A) Hunger
(B) Pain
(C) Sexual drive state
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

25. Motivation could be described as—
(A) An instinctual response to a need
(B) A modifier of behavior
(C) An acquired response to a need
(D) An energizer of behavior
Ans. (D)

Free Psychology Test online Questions

Free Psychology Test online Questions
Free Practice test Psychology
1. Latent learning goes on under—
(A) Low levels of drive
(B) High levels of drive
(C) Strong motivation to learn
(D) Stimulatory conditions of reward and punishment that are perceived at the subconscious level
Ans. (A)

2. The following play an important role in emotions—
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Limbic system
(D) Limbic system and hypothalamus
Ans. (D)

3. Shifting from right-hand driving (in America) to left-hand driving (in Britain) in an example of—
(A) Negative transfer of learning
(B) Positive transfer of learning
(C) No transfer of learning
(D) Learning by past experience
Ans. (A)

4. The pituitary gland is the master endocrine gland because—
(A) It produces the largest number of different hormones
(B) It controls the secretion of several other endocrine glands
(C) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(D) It controls the timings and amount of body growth
Ans. (C)

5. If reinforcement is given after unpredictable period of time with some specified average time between reinforcement it is
known as—
(A) Variable interval schedule
(B) Fixed ratio schedule
(C) Fixed interval schedule
(D) Variable ratio schedule
Ans. (A)

6. Some of the mood altering drugs (such as tranquilizers and LSD) probably create their effect by—
(A) Changing the activity of the synapsis
(B) Blocking the release of some synaptic transmitters and thus allowing fewer messages to get through.
(C) Accumulating in certain brain cells, where they may act like certain neural transmitters and over stimulate the cells
(D) Either of the above alternatives are true
Ans. (D)

7. A boy who paints because he derives satisfaction by painting is motivated by—
(A) Selective reward
(B) Extrinsic reward
(C) Mixed reward
(D) Intrinsic reward
Ans. (D)

8. Lymbic system (old brain) is involved in—
(A) Carrying out actions that require a sequence of behavior for completion
(B) Control of many bodily functions
(C) Learning and memory
(D) Thinking
Ans. (A)

9. In order to achieve success in life, one should—
(A) Have plenty of money
(B) Have contacts with influential persons
(C) Work hard and continuously
(D) Be honest and sincere
Ans. (C)
10. Hair and fat distribution in human body is controlled mainly by the secretions from the—
(A) Adrenal glands
(B) Gonads
(C) Pituitary
(D) Thyroid
Ans. (B)

11. A decrease in intensity or probability of a response’s occurrence after lapse of some time take place in—
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Apparent conditioning
(C) Neither of these
(D) Both of these
Ans. (D)

12. In case of man, the amount of cortex corresponding to—
(A) Hands and finger is much larger than that devoted to the feet and toes
(B) Feet and toes is much larger than that devoted to the hands and finger
(C) Feet and toes and of hands and fingers is approximately the same amount
(D) In the tongue is the maximum
Ans. (A)

13. Reticular formation serves to—
(A) Control motor behavior
(B) Arouses other parts of the brain to be ready to function
(C) To influence hunger and eating behavior
(D) To determine sequence of behavior for completion of an act
Ans. (B)

14. Punishing a child for wetting the bed, often—
(A) Substitute the behavior by some other behavior
(B) Decrease the frequency of the behavior
(C) Increase the frequency of the behavior
(D) Does not have any effect
Ans. (C)

15. Which of the following is not true for low and high anxious subject?
(A) Ego involving instructions raises scores for low anxious subject
(B) Pressure to finish a task results in a substantially improved score for high anxious subjects but not for low anxious subjects
(C) High anxious subjects learn a simple classically conditioned response (e.g., eye blink to airpuff) more rapidly than low anxious
subjects
(D) In complex tasks, the low anxious subjects do better
Ans. (B)

16. Lesions in the visual association area causes—
(A) Deficits in the ability to recognize and discriminate different forms
(B) Loss of visual acuity
(C) Delayed-response deficit
(D) Only (A) and (B) are true
Ans. (D)

17. The grade-point average is least affected by the degree of anxiety, at—
(A) The middle range of ability
(B) The extremes of ability
(C) The effect is approximately the same at all levels of ability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

18. Dwarfism occurs as a result of—
(A) Under secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone
(B) Over secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone
(C) Environmental influences
(D) Inadequate protein intake especially during early childhood
Ans. (A)

19. The following characteristic is not carried by recessive genes—
(A) Brown-eyes
(B) Baldness
(C) Susceptibility to poisoning
(D) Hemophilia
Ans. (A)

20. All of the following are correct about the role of the brain in emotional reaction except—
(A) The brain is ‘involved in both the coordination of all emotional activities
(B) The brain plays an important role in the arousal as well as inhibition of emotional reactions
(C) If the limbic system is removed the animal goes to sleep and becomes completely inactive. (otherwise, it becomes enraged at a
slight stimulation)
(D) If the neocortex is removed the animal becomes very placid and tame showing little or no reaction to considerable provocation.
Ans. (C)

21. The methods used for studying the heritability of traits in human beings is by means of—
(A) Selective breeding
(B) Fraternal and identical twin studies
(C) Identical twin studies
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)

22. An individual with an XXY 23rd chromosome is—
(A) Physically a female with marked masculine characteristics
(B) Physically a male with marked feminine characteristics
(C) A homosexual
(D) An eunuch
Ans. (B)

23. Which of the following is not true about autonomic nervous system?
(A) Autonomic’ nerve fibers originate from cells locate in the spinal cord and the brain and are distributed to sense organs in the skin.
(B) It is constituted by the efferent visceral fibre taken collectively.
(C) It is important neural mechanisms which help an individual adjust to his environment.
(D) It helps the person by preparing him for action for fighting or running away, for releasing or for digesting and excreting waste
Matter.
Ans. (A)

24. Environmental influences—
(A) Can change the genetic make-up
(B) Cannot change the I.Q. level of an individual
(C) Can change the utilization of the inherited potential
(D) All of the above are true
Ans. (C)

25. The transmission of an impulse in a neuron depends on—
(A) Graded potential
(B) The all-or-none principle
(C) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) are correct
Ans. (B)

Sample Multiple Choice Exam Questions Psychology

Sample Multiple Choice Exam Questions Psychology
Psychology Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
Psychology Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper
Psychology
1. The sense of balance is controlled by:
(A) The semicircular canals
(B) The vestibule
(C) The organ of corti
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)

2. Which scale makes it possible to say that the weight of a boy in the sixth grade is times that of a boy in second grade?
(A) The interval scale
(B) The ratio scale
(C) The nominal scale
(D) The ordinal scale
Ans. (B)

3. The nerve impulse is transmitted across the synapse by:
(A) Chemical intermediary
(B) Electrical activity
(C) Electrochemical activity
(D) Any of the above
Ans. (A)

4. χ (chi-square) test can be used in situations in which—
(A) K = 2, but some expected frequencies are less than 5
(B) It is greater than 1, but more than 20% of frequencies are smaller than 5
(C) Any expected frequency is smaller than 1
(D) None of the above is found to be a fact
Ans. (D)

5. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data is not—
(A) Is X related to ‘Y’ ?
(B) How is X related to Y
(C) How does X affect the dependent variable Y at different level of another independent variable K or M?
(D) How is X by K related to M?
Ans. (A)

6. Anything that elicite a response without prior learning is a—
(A) Conditioned stimulus
(B) Positive reinforcement
(C) Negative reinforcement
(D) Unconditioned stimulus
Ans. (D)

7. Calculate chi-square value from the following and write the correct answer—

(A) 175
(B) 17.25
(C) 12.7
(D) 17.0
Ans. (C)

8. When Mohari was one year old, he didn’t walk properly but reaching to two he moves perfectly, what was the reason?
(A) Maturation
(B) Learning
(C) Practice
(D) Growth
Ans. (A)

9, Interview is categorized in—
(A) Observation
(B) Projection
(C) Conversation
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)

10. Salivation produced by putting meat powder on dog’s tongue in case or Pavlov is a—
(A) Conditioned response
(B) Unconditioned response
(C) Learned response
(D) Positive response
Ans. (B)

11. First order conditioning is the result of—
(A) Primary reinforcement
(B) Natural reinforcement
(C) Natural response
(D) Positive reinforcement
Ans. (A)

12. The scale of measurement which provides information about how people vary on a particular attribute, but fails to tell how high or low they are in an absolute sense is the—
(A) Ordinal scale
(B) Nominal scale
(C) Interval scale
(D) Ratio scale
Ans. (C)

13. The principle of learning that an act which has a satisfying effect will be learned more quickly than one which has a dissatisfying
effect was put forth by—
(A) Watson
(B) Thorndike
(C) Skinner
(D) Gulthrle
Ans. (B)

14. Which of the following is not the reason underling the importance of research in Psychology—
(A) It is a tool for verifying, testing and validating knowledge
(B) It is a potent means of creating a new knowledge
(C) It has moved to the centre of the behavioral sciences
(D) It provides answer to many problems faced by psychologists
Ans. (C)

15. In which test there is a sufficient time limit for giving answer by all subjects?
(A) Essay test
(B) Power test
(C) Speed test
(D) Objective test
Ans. (B)

16. For efficient learning the learning task should be—
(A) Rewarding
(B) Interesting
(C) Adjusted to the learner’s level of maturity
(D) Lower than the learner’s level of maturity
Ans. (C)

17. A projective tests as technique is a method of collecting data about an idividua1’s personality which—
(A) Uses a short structured interview schedule
(B) Uses direct observation of individual’s behavior
(C) Uses unstructured stimulus situations such as ink-blots, photographs etc. to elicit individual’s reactions
(D) Uses on the spot participant observations for measuring an individual’s personality qualities.
Ans. (C)

18. Which pair is matched correctly?
(a) Habit strength — SHR
(b) Reaction Potential — SER
(c) Reactive inhibition—SIR
(d) Reaction Time—STR
Codes—
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b and d
(C) b, c and d
(D) a, c and d
Ans. (B)

19. Which one is incorrect statement according to cross-sectional method?
(A) Sufficient saving of time
(B) Long time co-ordination between researchers
(C) Sufficient saving of money
(D) Collection of data for a particular period
Ans. (B)

20. If the US and CS are more closely paired, classical conditioning becomes more effective. The statement is—
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Sometimes false, sometimes true
(D) Neither true, nor false
Ans. (A)

21. Which is not correct about non-parametric tests of significance?
(A) They are distribution-free-techniques of analysis
(B) They make no assumptions about the parameters
(C) They do make certain assumptions, but there are fewer and less stringent
(D) They assume that groups should be homogeneous
Ans. (D)

22 An animal learns by trial and error when—
(A) There is a strong motivation
(B) The goal is clear
(C) The problem cannot be solved easily
(D) All of the above conditions are fulfilled
Ans. (D)

23. An eventual aspect of all learning is—
(A) Emotional
(B) Imitation
(C) Association
(D) Motivation
Ans. (D)

24. An important social consideration in evaluating the significance of the research problem is—
(A) The genuine interest of the researcher in the problem
(B) Practical value of the findings for educators, parents and social workers etc.
(C) Necessary skills, abilities and background of knowledge of the researches
(D) Possibility of obtaining reliable and valid data by the researcher.
Ans. (B)

25. An interval scale of measurement has all the following characteristic except—
(A) The rank ordering of objects is known with respect to an attribute
(B) The distance from a rational zero is known for each person
(C) It is known how far apart the objects are from one another with respect to the attribute
(D) No information is available about the absolute magnitude of an attribute for any object
Ans. (B)

Psychology objective questions and answers

Psychology objective questions and answers
psychology objective questions and answers Solved Model test
Multiple Choice Test, Multiple Choice Psychology
1. At its most basic level verbal learning may be considered as:
(A) The process of concept formation
(B) The process of forming verbal associations
(C) The process of rule learning
(D) The process of skill learning
Ans. (B)

2. Although I. Q’s are relatively stable for most people, I. Q. may show large shifts because of—
(A) Environmental conditions
(B) Emotional factors
(C) Motivational factors
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

3. The group factor theory of intelligence was proposed by—
(A) Kelley
(B) Brown
(C) Thorndike
(D) Spearman
Ans. (A)

4. We forget and then forget what we forgot is:
(A) Repression
(B) Excessive repression
(C) Motivated forgetting
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

5. Which kind of test WAIS-R and WISC-R are?
(A) Non-verbal
(B) Verbal performance
(C) Verbal
(D) Performance
Ans. (B)

6. Learning involving a change in the way information is processed as a result of experience that an organism has had, and which has not been rewarded explicitly is
(A) Foresight learning
(B) Instrumental learning
(C) Cognitive learning
(D) Motivated learning
Ans. (C)

7. With age, the following shows little decline—
(A) Speed of intellectual functioning
(B) Short term memory
(C) General knowledge
(D) Efficiency of intellectual functioning
Ans. (C)

8. The phenomenon of a tune ‘running in the head’ is called:
(A) Involuntary recall
(B) Reinforcement
(C) Reinstatement
(D) Perseveration
Ans. (D)

9. Which theory of forgetting stresses that what is stored is determined by what is perceived and how it is encoded; and what is stored determines what retrieval cues are effective in providing access to what is stored?
(A)Interference theory of forgetting
(B) Motivation theory of forgetting
(C) Two factor theory of forgetting
(D) Tulving and Thomson theory of forgetting
Ans. (D)

10. Who said, “Intelligence is like electricity which is easy to be measured but difficult to be defined”?
(A) Spearman
(B) Vernon
(C) Jenson
(D) Burt
Ans. (C)

11. Creativity correlates mostly with:
(A) Inductive and deductive thinking
(B) Deductive thinking
(C) Inductive and evaluative thinking
(D) Inductive, deductive and evaluative thinking
Ans. (C)

12. A general relation-perceiving capacity which represents one’s potential intelligence somewhat independent of socialization an education is termed by Catell as—
(A) Crystallized intelligence
(B) Fluctuating intelligence
(C) Fluid intelligence
(D) The general intelligence factor
Ans. (C)



13. Thinking is carried on by:
(A) Imperceptible muscular movements
(B) Mental images representing a variety of symbols
(C) Both of these processes
(D) Neither of these processes
Ans. (C)

14. Stress is experienced when:
(A) Internal homeostatic balance is disrupted
(B) There is injury or threat of injury
(C) There is frustration
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

15. The contractions of muscles in the stomach do not:
(A) Activate cells in lateral hypothalamus
(B) Influence hypothalamic control of immediate appetite
(C) Results in hunger pangs
(D) Activate thermo receptors in the brain
Ans. (D)

16. An artist must have high—
(A) Abstract intelligence
(B) Social intelligence
(C) Concrete intelligence
(D) Crystallized intelligence
Ans. (A)

17. The social learning theory stresses on the importance of:
(A) Models
(B) Self-regulatory processes
(C) Cognitive processes
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

18. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) Those with low intelligence reach their upper limit of mental growth quite late and those with high intelligence reach their at a relatively early age.
(B) Mental growth is continuous even beyond the time of physical maturity.
(C) The I. Q’s of very bright children invariably develops with age.
(D) I. Q. usually changes very little with age, if at all.
Ans. (A)

19. “Stop smoking or get lung cancer” is an example of:
(A) Approach-avoidance conflict
(B) Approach-approach conflict
(C) Avoidance-avoidance conflict
(D) Double approach-avoidance conflict
Ans. (C)

20. Look at on these primary mental abilities—
(a) Verbal comprehension
(b) Reasoning
(c) Word fluency
(d) Perceptual speed
The correct sequence is—
(A) c, b, a, d
(B) d, c, a, b
(C) b, a, d, c
(D) d, b, a, c
Ans. (D)

21. In behavioristic school, thinking is explained as
(A) Sub-vocal speech
(B) A conditioned reflex
(C) An unconscious activity
(D) Symbolism
Ans. (A)

22. Thurstone’s Primary Mental abilities Tests (PMA) are based on the following theory of intelligence?
(A) Group factor theory
(B) G-factor theory
(C) Structure of intellect model
(D) The concept of crystallized intelligence
Ans. (A)

23. The first tests designed to measure intelligence were developed by:
(A) Alfred Binet
(B) Theodore Simon
(C) Francis Galton
(D) Louis Thurstone
Ans. (C)

24. The power to perform an act, physical or mental, either before or after training is called
(A) Trait
(B) Aptitude
(C) Attitude
(D) Ability
Ans. (D)

25. Which of the following is most correct?
(A) Creative ability and intelligence are entirely different from one another.
(B) Creativity and intelligence are one and the same thing.
(C) Creativity and intelligence are neither entirely independent nor-closely related together
(D) Creativity and intelligence are highly correlated with each other.
Ans. (C)

26. Which of the following statement is correct with regards to imprinting?
(A) Ducklings will follow the first moving object they see and thereafter show preference for this object and others like it
(B) Ducklings will follow the mother when they see it since they instinctively know they are safe in doing so
(C) Ducklings do not follow the first moving object when they see it since they tend to be very cautious
(D) Ducklings can be imprinted only to the members of their own species
Ans. (A)

27. Which of the following statements is WRONG? According to Cattell
(A) Fluid intelligence inc1uds the flexibility to organize and reorganize concepts
(B) Fluid intelligence peeks early and begins to decline shortly after age 20
(C) Fluid intelligence includes scholastic ability and is determined by the culture
(D) Crystallized intelligence may continue to increase for many years after the end of formal schooling
Ans. (C)

28. Thurstone’s primary abilities—
(A) Are completely independent
(B) Have significant interrelation
(C) Do not give support to special ideals of a general intelligence factor
(D) Are insignificantly inter-correlated
Ans. (B)

29. A person is sometimes extremely boastful and sometimes self-effacing; sometimes sociable and sometimes seclusive. He belongs to the personality type:
(A) Ambivert
(B) Introvert
(C) Extrovert
(D) Mesomorph
Ans. (A)

30. Which of the following is not an aptitude test?
(A) DABT
(B) GABT
(C) EPPS
(D) FACT
Ans. (C)

31. The central theme of Roger’s personality theory is
(A) Self
(B) Ego
(C) Experience
(D) External reality
Ans. (A)

32. When the content of the responses is ignored, but the pattern of a person’s responses are matched with the patterns of answers given by groups of people with known characteristics, we get a test that has
(A) Content validity
(B) Empirical validity
(C) Face validity
(D) Construct validity
Ans. (B)

33. Consider these factors—
(a) Medical problems
(b) Cultural deprivation
(c) Family inheritance
Which one is related with mental deficiency?
(A) a and c
(B) a, b and c
(C) b and c
(D) only c
Ans. (A)

34. In an experiment, if the independent variable is a new way of teaching children to read, it would he most appropriate to use
(A) The control group method
(B) The A-B-A within subject experimental design
(C) No control group
(D) Both (A) and (B) are equally appropriate
Ans. (A)

35. A psychologist is experimenting on how the reaction time is affected by the lack of sleep. The reaction time in this experiment is the:
(A) Control variable
(B) Intervening variable
(C) Dependent variable
(D) Independent variable
Ans. (C)

36. Which of the following statements is correct about the negative and positive correlations f the same size?
(A) The positive correlation indicates a higher degree of relationship than he negative correlation of the same size
(B) The negative and positive correlations of the same size represent the same degree of relationship
(C) The negative correlation indicates no relationship whereas the positive correlation indicates a relationship
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct
Ans. (B)

37. Consider statement and their reason and reply on codes—
Statement: An Intelligence Quotient of 40 year person is similar to a man of 20 years.
Reason: In beginning intelligence of 40 year person was slow.
Codes—
(A) Statement is right but reason not
(B) Reason is right but statement not
(C) Statement and reason both are right
(D) Statement and reason both are wrong
Ans. (A)

38. The Thematic Apperception Test is based on:
(A) Maslow’s theory of needs
(B) Roger’s self-concept
(C) Freud’s psychoanalysis
(D) Murray’s theory of needs
Ans. (D)

39. Heritability ratio (H) means—
(A) Ratio between I.Q.s and P. Q. obtained on tests of intelligence.
(B) Ratio between I.Q.s of identical twins and fraternal twins.
(C) Ratio between I.Q.s of siblings.
(D) Ratio between genetic variability of intelligence scores and total variability of intelligence scores
Ans. (D)

40. By giving tests in two different but equivalent forms, one can ascertain the:
(A) Reliability
(B) Validity
(C) Predictive validity
(D) Utility
Ans. (A)

41. Which of the following scales is not a scale of good enough Harris Drawing Test?
(A) Child-scale
(B) Female-scale
(C) Male scale
(D) Self-scale
Ans. (A)

42. Match list I (Theories of intelligence) with list II (Psychologists) reply on codes—
List I
(a) Spearman
(b) Gardner
(c) Thorndike
(d) Thustrone

List II
1. Group factor theory
2. Two factor theory
3. Theory of multiple intelligence
4. Multifactor theory
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 4
Ans. (D)


43. According to Binet, intelligence means the characteristics of an individual’s thought processes that enable him
(A) To take and maintain a direction without being distracted
(B) To adapt means to end
(C) To criticize his own attempts at problem solving
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

44. Psychologists prefer experimental method because:
(A) Quantitative resu1t can be obtained
(B) Precision instruments can be used for accurate observations
(C) It permits the exercise of rigorous controls
(D) Permanent records of behavior can he maintained
Ans. (C)

45. Guilford’s structure of intellect model suggests—
(A) Lumping together of items to form tests
(B) 120 unique intelligence factors
(C) 7 primary abilities
(D) The general intelligence factors
Ans. (B)

46. According to Catell, the crystallized intelligence—
(A) Reflects one’s cultural exposure
(B) Reflects one’s formal education
(C) Is innate
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true
Ans. (D)

47. Highly creative persons tend frequently to be—
(A) Low on scores in intelligence tests
(B) Moderately intelligent
(C) Of average intelligence
(D) Highly intelligent
Ans. (D)

48. Who was the first to organize relatively large- scale systematic experiments to detect inter individual differences in the sphere of intelligence?
(A) Francis Galton
(B) Louis Thurstone
(C) Binet
(D) Simon
Ans. (A)

49. Assume that a subject is given a long list of correlated words to study and is asked to recall the word at a later time. Then, according to Guilford’s structure of intellect model, the content of this test is—
(A) Semantic
(B) Figural
(C) Symbolic
(D) Behavioral
Ans. (A)

50. Reaction time related with intelligence. This thought connects with—
(A) Jensen
(B) Eysenck
(C) Stenberg
(D) Cattell
Ans. (C)

MCQ Psychology for exams

MCQ Psychology for exams
online mcq on psychology test
MCQ Psychology for exams Practice test




1. Perceptual constancy is contingent upon—
(A) Acuity of the sense organs
(B) Conditions of the stimulus
(C) Monocular cues of depth perception
(D) Binocular cues of distance perception
Ans. (B)

2. The I. Q’s above 130 are found in about—
(A) 1 per cent of the total population.
(B) 4 per cent of the total population.
(C) 2 per cent of the total population.
(D) 3 per cent of the total population.
Ans. (C)

3. The general intelligence factor (g) is the major determinant of performance on the intelligence test items according to—
(A) Thurstone
(B) Spearman
(C) Guttman
(D) Binet
Ans. (B)

4. Which symbol given by Thurston to find the principle in a group of sentences—
(A) V
(B) W
(C) P
(D) R
Ans. (D)


5. WAIS and WISC are tests of—
(A) Intelligence
(B) Personality
(C) Interests
(D) Aptitude
Ans. (A)

6. A good dancer must have high—
(A) Body kinetic intelligence
(B) Musical ability
(C) Fluid intelligence
(D) Personal intelligence
Ans. (A)


7. The first group test of intelligence ever constructed in India was—
(A) Jalota Test of General Mental ability
(B) Mahalanobis group test of intelligence in Bengali.
(C) Mohsin’s Test of general intelligence.
(D) Bhatia Battey test of general intelligence.
Ans. (B)


8. In Guilford model ‘memory or M’ includes in—
(A) Process
(B) Product
(C) Content
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)

9. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) Group factor theory of intelligence is associated with Thurstone
(B) Multifactor theory of intelligence was propounded by Thorndike
(C) Three Dimensional structure of intellect (SOI) was developed by Guilford
(D) Two factor theory of intelligence was proposed by Vernon
Ans. (D)


10. The first Indian apdaptation of Standford Binet Test of Intelligence was done by—
(A) Kamat (Marathi and Kannada)
(B) Dr. Rice (Urdu and Punjabi)
(C) Shukla (Gujrati)
(D) Sohan Lal (Hindi)
Ans. (B)

11. Match list I with list II.
List I
(a) Sampling theory
(b) Primary mental abilities
(c) Structure of intellect model
(d) Hierarchical model of abilities
List II
1. Vernon
2. Thomson
3. Thurstone
4. Guilford
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (A)

12. If you have been staring at a bright object intently and it is removed suddenly, you will continue to see images of the object. This is an example of:
(A) An optical illusion
(B) An after-image
(C) A visual purple effect
(D) Purkinje phenomenon
Ans. (B)


13. The principles of organization holds good for:
(A) Visual sense only
(B) Visual and auditory senses
(C) Visual and tactile senses
(D) Visual, auditory and tactile senses
Ans. (D)


14, Stereoscopic experiences are due to:
(A) Retinal disparity
(B) Monolocular cues
(C) Superposition effects
(D) Relativity in sizes
Ans. (A)

15. Which of the following provides scores on ten standarized clinical scales so as to separate medical or psychiatric patients from
normal controls?
(A) Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS)
(B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
(C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
(D) Bender Gestalt Test
Ans. (B)


16. Match list I (psychologists) with list II (psychological tests)—
List I
1. Raven
2. Wechsler
3. Torrance
4. Terman
List II
(a) Global intelligence
(b) Minnesota Test of Creative thinking
(c) Standard progressive Matrics
(d) Concept Mastery Test of intelligence
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 4 2 3 l
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (D)


17. Repetition of S-R-reinforcement sequence contributes to:
(A) Weaker association between S-R
(B) No association between S-R
(C) Stronger association between S-R
(D) Time spent on conditioning
Ans. (C)

10. Which types of syllables eliminate and control meaningfulness as a factor in verbal learning?
(A) Vowels
(B) Meaningful words
(C) Both meaningful and nonsense words
(D) Nonsense words
Ans. (D)

12. Organization in long-term memory is demonstrated by
(A) The tip of the tongue phenomenon
(B) Propositional network theory
(C) Now print theory
(D) PPT Test
Ans. (A)

14. Forgetting is not caused by:
(A) Factors relating to learned material
(B) Factors related to retention interval
(C) Factors related to learning
(D) Factors relating to the learner
Ans. (A)

17. Deductive thinking refers to thinking in which:
(A) The individual goes beyond the present information, adding new elements that are not inherent in the known facts
(B) An inference or conclusion is derived logically from information on hand
(C) The individual judges the suitability or appropriateness of an idea
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)
2. The variable effected by changes in the antecedent conditions is called—
(A) The dependent variable
(B) The controlling variable
(C) The independent variable
(D) The moderator variable
Ans. (A)


23. Which of the following cannot be a quality of good hypothesis?
(A) Modifiability
(B) Clarity
(C) Plauribility
(D) Verifiability
Ans. (A)

24. A son who has a harsh father may feel generally hostile to all his superiors. This is an example of:
(A) Generalized anxiety
(B) Generalized anger
(C) Generalized fear
(D) Direct aggression
Ans. (B)

25. The sympathetic system:
(A) Acts as a unit
(B) Acts in a piecemeal manner, affecting one organ at a time
(C) Is dominant in quiescence
(D) Both (A) and (C) are correct
Ans. (A)

Psychology Objective test

Psychology Objective test
psychology objective questions and answers Solved
Psychology Free Objective Test
1. When cold water (0—5°C) is Circulated through one coil and warm water (40 —44°C) through another interwining coil, the
subject on grasping the coils experience the following sensation—
(A) An ambivalent sensation of hot and cold
(B) Cold, freezing sensation
(C) Hot, burning sensation
(D) Warm, comfortable sensation
Ans. (C)


2. Perceptions are not affected by—
(A) Behavior
(B) Tension and anxiety
(C) Suggestions
(D) Hunger
Ans. (A)

3. The law of perception were formulated by the—
(A) Behaviorists
(B) Psychoanalysts
(C) Gestaltists
(D) Existentialists
Ans. (C)

4. The following is not a law of perceptual organisation—
(A) Proximity
(B) Similarity
(C) Pregnanz
(D) Contract
Ans. (D)


5. The following are the internal factors that direct attention—
(A) Motives
(B) Preparatory set
(C) Needs
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

6. If you mark off three equally distant points on the back of a person’s hand, touch a pencil on the first two points, and pause
slightly before you touch the third, the person will report that first two points were closer together than the second and third. This
perception illustrates grouping of tactile stimuli according to—
(A) Nearness in space
(B) Nearness in time
(C) Continuation in time
(D) Closure in time
Ans. (B)



7. Which of the following is not correct about monocular cues of depth perception?
(A) Monocular cues are movement related
(B) Monocular cues are without movement
(C) Monocular cues are both with and without movement
(D) Monocular have nothing to do with depth perception
Ans. (D)

8. Experiments using special glasses (or prisms) in which the subject adopted his visual motor habits in a visually rearranged
environment indicated the role of learning in—
(A) Location constancy
(B) Size constancy
(C) Shape constancy
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)


9. When we look at a figure for sometime and then look at another figure, the perception of the second figure is distorted. This
phenomenon is referred to as—
(A) After image
(B) Illusion
(C) The figure after effect
(D) Distorted perception
Ans. (C)

10. The moon is often seen moving behind the clouds. This is an example of—
(A) Real-motion
(B) Phi-phenomenon
(C) Auto kinetic motion
(D) Induced motion
Ans. (D)

11. The neurons in the visual cortex that respond only to stimuli of particular orientation and specific length and width are called—
(A) Simple cells
(B) Complex cells
(C) Hyper complex cells
(D) Hypocomplex cells
Ans. (C)

12. All of the following are true about perceptual constancy except—
(A) In different individuals and in different stimulus situations varied levels of perceptual constancy are found
(B) Perceptual constancy increase with the increased difference between the standard object and comparison object
(C) Perceptual constancy increases with age
(D) Perceptual constancy is determined by innate neural organisation
(E) Perceptual constancy is an artifact of experimental variety
Ans. (E)

13. Which of the following statement is not correct? Perceptual learning—
(A) Can be learned from books
(B) Is observed when we study the increased auditory and factual sensitivity of the blind people
(C) Has practical and adaptive value
(D) Illustrates the plasticity of perception
Ans. (A)

14. Which of the following statement regarding hypnosis is false?
(A) Under hypnosis, attention becomes highly selective
(B) The EEG of the hypnotic, state is that of sleeping
(C) The hypnotised subject readily enacts unusual roles
(D) The ability to be hypnotised may have a hereditary component
Ans. (B)

15. Drug use should be discouraged. Which of the following is not a primary reason for discouraging drug use? Drug use is—
(A) Dangerous to health and even to life
(B) Is costly and likely to lead to illegal activities to maintain a supply
(C) May lead to dry dependency
(D) May result in unpleasant experiences
Ans. (D)

16. Galton developed tests of intelligence by measuring tasks requiring—
(A) Reasoning
(B) Perceptual Motor Skills
(C) Problem solving
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)


17. To predict the outcome of training the following test (s) are most useful—
(A) Aptitude test
(B) Achievement tests
(C) Intelligence tests
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)


18. In Thurston theory of intelligence, many factors are developed, shown in symbols, which one were not included—
(A) N
(B) R
(C) M
(D) H
Ans. (D)

19. All of the following are factor theories of intelligence except—
(A) Spearman Two factor theory of intelligence
(B) Thurston’s group factor theory of intelligence
(C) Thorndike’s multiple factor theory of intelligence.
(D) Càtell’s Theory of intelligence.
(E) Gardner’s theory of intelligence
(F) Hierarchical theory of intelligence.
(G) Stenberg’s Triarchic theory of intelligence
Ans. (G)

20. “Closer the blood relation between two groups, the smaller the difference between their I.Qs.” Which of the following is not
correct about this statement?
(A) This is a widely accepted generalization.
(B) This is a research based conclusion.
(C) This is a statement made by psychologists like Wing Field and others.
(D) This is a statement not backed by sufficient evidence.
Ans. (D)


21. Consider Spearman’s theory of intelligence and select untrue statement—
(A) G factor is important in intelligence than S factor
(B) G factor does not effected by education and training.
(C) Nature of S factor are unchangeable.
(D) S factor is effected by experience and training.
Ans. (C)


22. “A condition or set of characteristics indicative of ability to learn’ is the definition of—
(A) Intelligence
(B) Aptitude
(C) Motivation
(D) Interest
Ans. (B)


23. When high correlation exist between different type of mental capacity test, which factor is important according to Spearman—
(A) G factor
(B) S factor
(C) V factor
(D) W factor
Ans. (A)


24. Mental deficiency is characterised by the I. Q. range—
(A) 0—25
(B) 0—50
(C) 0—70
(D) 0—100
Ans. (C)

25. Guilford propounded structure-of-intellectmodel of intelligence in which he describes three dimensions. Which one is not it?
(A) Content
(B) Element
(C) Product
(D) Process
Ans. (B)

Solved Psychology for UGC NET

Solved Psychology for UGC NET
UGC NET Solved Psychology Objective test
practice material for UGC NET Exam
1. If you have to develop a test for a new concept which is the best method of ensuring the validity of that test?
(i) Content
(ii) Empirical/Criterion-related
(iii) Convergent and discriminant
(iv) Factorial
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (B)

2. “The raw material delivered to the brain by the sense organs via the sensory nerves is used and interpreted by the individual in
accordance with his past experience and in furtherance of whatever activities, he may be engaged in at the moment.” The
statement is indicative of the—
(A) Psychology of perception
(B) Psychology of thinking
(C) Psychology of reasoning
(D) Psychology of nervous functioning
Ans. (A)


3. All of the following are principles of perceptual organization except—
(A) Principle of observation and experience
(B) Principle of similarity
(C) Principle of familiarity
(D) Principle of distance
Ans. (A)



4. Assertion (A): There is no relationship between language and thought.
Reason (R): Thought is possible without language.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (D)

5. Which of the following is not true?
(A) The cones are active only in day light vision
(B) The rods permit us to see only achromatic colours
(C) The cones permit us to see both achromatic and chromatic colours
(D) The cones permit us to see only chromatic colours (red, green, blue etc.)
Ans. (D)


6. A set of ideas that fit together to provide a perspective on some aspect of the world is
known as—
(A) Hypothesis
(B) Theory
(C) Law
(D) Variable
Ans. (B)

7. Assertion (A): In pattern recognition people take longer to differentiate between similar letters than dissimilar letters.
Reason (R): Similar letters have many similar features.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (B)

8. The auditory sense is sensitive to—
(A) Electromagnetic energy
(B) Electrical energy
(C) Mechanical energy
(D) Chemical energy
Ans. (C)



9. Which of the following statement is false?
A totally colour blind person is—
(A) A monochromat
(B) Has only the light-dark system
(C) Also night-blind
(D) Has neither the yellow blue, system nor the red-green system
Ans. (C)


10. All of the following are eventual aspect of gestalt theory of perception except—
(A) Figure Ground perception
(B) Perceptual organisation
(C) Isomorphism
(D) Dual trace mechanism
(E) Field Force
Ans. (D)


11. The psychological correlate of frequency (of a sound wave) is—
(A) Timbre
(B) Loudness
(C) Quality
(D) Pitch
Ans. (D)

12. Which of the following statement is not correct about gestalt theory of perceptual organisation?
(A) Peripheral principles relates to characteristic of stimulus.
(B) Gestaltists have basically emphasized in perceptual organization the role of peripheral principles.
(C) Central principles of perceptual organization include meaning motivation, attitude, values, etc.
(D) Peripheral principles are also called principles of primitive organization
Ans. (B)

13. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II
List-I
(a) Long term memory
(b) Sensory memory
(c) Attention
(d) Short-term memory
List-II
(i) Chunking
(ii) Entry of information from external world
(iii) Information is stored after evaluation
(iv) Viewing people in a busy market
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (B)

14. The main Neurotransmitters are—
(i) Acetylcholine
(ii) Dopamine
(iii) Mescaline
(iv) Noradrenalin
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (D)



15. Match List-I with List-II to indicate which process is predominantly related to which
task—
List-I
(a) Multiple choice tests
(b) Listing the places related to Gandhi
(c) Sharing the story of a cinema
(d) Essay type test
List-II
(i) Reproduction
(ii) Reconstruction
(iii) Recall
(iv) Recognition
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (D)



16. Match List-I with List-II—
List-I
(a) Cognitive development
(b) Psychological development
(c) Contact comfort
(d) Post conventional reasoning
List-II
(i) Kohlberg
(ii) Piaget
(iii) Erickson
(iv) Harlow
(v) Gilligan
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (i) (iii) (v) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Ans. (C)



17. A preconceived assumption that the problem will be solved by means of a particular method or set of procedures is called—
(A) Functional set
(B) Rule set
(C) Operational set
(D) Mental set
Ans. (C)

18. Select the false statement—
(A) Intelligence is equal in all humans
(B) Intelligence and physical development both develop simultaneously upto a certain age
(C) Many factors contribute in formation of intelligence
(D) Intelligence develops throughout life
Ans. (D)

19. All of the following are the special features of 1986 version Standford Binet test of intelligence except—
(A) It has two equivalent forms like the L and M forms of 1937 version.
(B) More emphasis is given on verbal items.
(C) It has clever parts based on these levels of theoretical model of intelligence
(D) Mental age and I. Q. concepts are replaced by a new concept of SAS (standard age scores)

Ans. (A)




20. The concept of mental age was developed by—
(A) Binet and Standford
(B) Standford and Simon
(C) Simon and Binet
(D) Binet
Ans. (C)

21. The power to perform an acts, physical or mental, either before or after training is called—
(A) Trait
(B) Aptitude
(C) Attitude
(D) Ability
Ans. (D)


22. According to Binet, intelligence means the characteristics of an individual’s thought processes that enable him—
(A) To take and maintain a direction without becoming distracted
(B) To adopt means to ends
(C) To criticise his own attempts at problem solution
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

23. Which of the following correlation’s found between scores on intelligence test of various groups is not correct?
(A) Cousins — 60
(B) Identical twins (foster parents) — 72
(C) Fraternal twins (neutral parents) — 60
(D) Siblings brought up together — 47
Ans. (A)

24. Thurston’s test of primary mental abilities have factors—
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
Ans. (A)

25. The average person at age 16 has a mental age of—
(A) 16 year
(B) 14 year
(C) 15 year
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

Psychology MCQ Quiz Test

Psychology MCQ Quiz Test
Multiple Choice Quiz Questions for Psychology
Sample Multiple Choice Exam Questions Psychology
1. Cognitive structures, according to Piaget’s theory, are all of the following except—
(A) Concept, beliefs, abilities or perceptual styles
(B) Physiological organs
(C) End results of continuous interrupting between maturation and experience
(D) Foundation stones of child’s intellectual development.
Ans. (B)



2. What is the example of thinking fan, car, radio as alive things by child?
(A) Inappropriate thinking
(B) Imaginative thinking
(C) Animism
(D) Egocentrism
Ans. (C)


3. Distinctive feature of a concept varying from concept to concept is known as—
(A) Concept value
(B) Concept attribute
(C) Concept quality
(D) Concept uniqueness
Ans. (B)


4. When the muscles necessary for speaking are paralyzed then—
(A) Thinking cannot go on
(B) Verbal thinking cannot go on
(C) Verbal thinking can go on
(D) Problem solving ability is hampered
Ans. (C)


5. The symbols used in thinking are—
(A) Images
(B) Languages
(C) Concept
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)


6. A condition which is not favourable in reasoning is—
(A) Suggestion
(B) Interest
(C) Attention
(D) Motivation
Ans. (A)


7. The rules used in problem solving are—
(A) Algorithm
(B) Heuristics
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Theoreurs
Ans. (C)

8. According to Guilford creative ability is—
(A) Highly specified associated with particular subject matter or disciplines.
(B) Somewhat general which can be applied to a variety of tasks.
(C) A composite of primary mental abilities as found by Thurstone
(D) A developed mental capacity of highly abstract nature.
Ans. (B)


9. Which is not an attribute of the concept?
(A) Concreteness, observability and measurability
(B) Psychological meaningfulness
(C) Intrinsic, functional and formal properties.
(D) Abstractness, inclusiveness or generality
(E) Structure
Ans. (A)

10. Concept of food including bread, butter, milk etc. is based on—
(A) Formal properties
(B) Intrinsic properties
(C) Psychological meaningful property
(D) Functional properties
Ans. (D)


11. The best way of problem-solving is—
(A) Rigidity
(B) Chance
(C) Insight
(D) Trial and error
Ans. (C)


12. Which is not the structural attribute of the concept?
(A) Conjunctive
(B) Associative
(C) Disjunctive
(D) Relational
Ans. (B)


13. Religion is a—
(A) Conjunctive concept
(B) Disjunctive concept
(C) Relational concept
(D) Functional concept
Ans. (B)


14. Who had proposed the concept of goal gradient in problem solving?
(A) Kohler
(B) Hull
(C) Brich
(D) Wertheimer
Ans. (B)


15. All of the following factors influence concept formation except—
(A) Distinctiveness
(B) Manipulability of material
(C) Instructions
(D) Psychological variables
Ans. (D)

16. Who demonstrated that negative examples are of no use in concept learning?
(A) Smoke, 1932
(B) Hovland and Weiss, 1953
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)


17. Which of the following is not a method or procedure of concept learning?
(A) Method of reception
(B) Method of recitation
(C) Method of selection
(D) Both method of reception and method of selection
Ans. (B)

18. All of the following are kind of reasoning except—
(A) Deductive reasoning
(B) Inductive reasoning
(C) Creative reasoning
(D) Evaluative reasoning
(E) Analogical reasoning
Ans. (C)


19. Three of the following mean same thing while one does not—
(A) Productive thinking
(B) Reproductive thinking
(C) Creative thinking
(D) Divergent thinking
Ans. (B)

20. A symbol has an/a—
(A) Universal meaning
(B) Innate meaning
(C) Natural meaning
(D) Arbitrary meaning
Ans. (D)


21. Creative thinking involves the phenomenon of—
(A) Deduction
(B) Insight
(C) Induction
(D) Decision making
Ans. (B)

22. Spoken language is—
(A) An ability found among all animals
(B) A species specific ability limited to Home Sapiens
(C) An ability confined only to the primates
(D) An innately determined mechanism in all animals
Ans. (B)

23. The concepts of taller, older, up-down, north-south etc. are examples of—
(A) Relational concepts
(B) Conjunctive concepts
(C) Disjunctive concepts
(D) Functional concepts
Ans. (A)

24. Most of creative thinking activity occurs during the stage of—
(A) Preparation
(B) Illumination
(C) Incubation
(D) Evaluation
Ans. (C)


25. The smallest unit of meaning in speech perception is—
(A) Morphemes
(B) Phonemes
(C) Words
(D) Syllables
Ans. (A)

Free Online Psychology Objective test For UGC NET Exam

Free online Psychology Objective test For UGC NET Exam
UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper: Psychology
UGC NET Exam Model Papers Psychology

1. The concept of collective unconscious was formulated by—
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Anna Freud
(C) Jung
(D) Adler
Ans. (C)

2. Which of the following is not a concept used by Alder in the analysis of personality ?
(A) Unity of personality
(B) Ego-ideal
(C) Striving for success or perfection
(D) Social interest
Ans. (B)


3. Depending upon the three neurotic tendencies, according to Homey, children develop these types of personalities. Which of the following is not one of these?
(A) Complaint personality type
(B) Hostile personality type
(C) Detached personality type
(D) Nurturant personality type
Ans. (D)


4. A neurotic person, according to Homey, is characterised by all of the following except—
(A) A self-image, which is a false belief
(B) High emotional and social maturity
(C) A drive for world glory and neurotic pride
(D) Habit of making neurotic claims on others
Ans. (B)


5. Father seen as a rival, boys wanting to be ‘mummy’ little man’ is e expression given by Freud to—
(A) Electra complex
(B) Castration complex
(C) Phallic stage complex
(D) Oedipus complex
Ans. (D)


6. Electra complex as viewed by Freud means?
(A) Girl’s complex
(B) Boy’s complex
(C) Anxiety feelings of girls being deprived of male sexual organs.
(D) Boy’s feeling of anxiety due to a desire for incestuous relations with his mother.
Ans. (C)

7. What is meant by Z score?
(A) Distance between score and mean
(B) Distance between unit of standard deviation and mean
(C) Distance between unit of quartile and mean
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)


8. Famous method for knowing reliability is—
(A) Rulon formula
(B) Flanagan formula
(C) Kuder-Richardson formula
(D) Split-half reliability method
Ans. (D)


9. To know reliability which of the following is not included?
(A) Test-retest method
(B) Split-half method
(C) Item-total correlation method
(D) Kuder-Richardson formula
Ans. (C)

10. Which of the following is a non-verbal performance test of general intelligence?
(A) Progressive Metrics Test by J.C.Ravens
(B) Cattell’s Culture-Fair tests
(C) Bhatia Battery Test General intelligence
(D) Pigeon Test congenial intelligence.
Ans. (C)

11. What is aptitude?
(A) The potentials of a person can be promoted through training
(B) Persons achievements after training
(C) Persons primary general ability is constant for life
(D) Capacity is common in all the mental activities of a person
Ans. (A)


12. Which is the main demerit of percentile norms—
(A) In these types percentage confusion is created
(B) Calculation of percentile norms is difficult
(C) Percentile norms are subjective norms
(D) Units of scale based on percentile norms is unequal
Ans. (D)

13. Which is not correct about inventories?
(A) They are instruments that attempt to ‘take stock’ to one or more aspects of an individual’s behavior rather than to measure in the usual sense
(B) They require subjects to perform at their maximum level
(C) They list items relating to the factor being appraised and request subjects to indicate preferences or check items that describe their behavior
(D) The response obtained on the inventories are evaluated to obtain descriptions of certain fundamental predispositions of the subjects
Ans. (B)

14. Difficulty level for an ideal item should be—
(A) .80
(C) 50
(B) .20
(D) .70
Ans. (C)


15. Reliability of test scores means—
(A) Self correlation of test
(B) Correlation with external criteria of a test
(C) Internal consistency of a test
(D) None of these.
Ans. (A)

16. Which of the following provide scores on ten standardized clinical scales so as to separate medical or psychiatric patients from normal ones?
(A) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
(B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
(C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
(D) Bender Gestalt Test
Ans. (C)


17. If the length of a test is increased through equivalent items then the—
(A) Reliability increases
(B) Validity increases
(C) True variance increases
(D) Error variance increases
Ans. (A)

18. AH ideal test has many characteristic. Which of these is not include in this?
(A) Self-correlation
(B) Validity
(C) Subjectivity
(D) Norms
Ans. (C)

19. Lowest common denominator of a psycho logical test is—
(A) Reliability
(B) Item
(C) Validity
(D) Norms
Ans. (B)


20. An attitude scale in which each item’s value is calculated by finding out the mean or median of the ratings of a large number of judges on an eleven point rating scale is known as—
(A) Bogardus type
(B) Guttman type
(C) Likert type
(D) Thilrstone type
Ans. (D)


21. Which is not included in criteria-related validity?
(A) Construct validity
(B) Concurrent validity
(C) Predictive validity
(D) All validity
Ans. (A)

22. For some specials reason Guilford and Fructure called split half reliability as—
(A) Delayed reliability
(B) On the spot reliability
(C) Internal consistency reliability
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

23. Three criteria used for evaluating appropriateness of the norms is called as (Three R’s) which is—
(A) Representativeness, Relevance, Recency
(B) Representativeness, Rational, Realism
(C) Realism, Reasonableness, Rationalization
(D) Realism, Reasonableness, Reliance
Ans. (A)


24. “As the individual matures, the bond with the past is broken” is told by—
(A) Cattell
(B) Allport
(C) Eysenck
(D) Guilford
Ans. (B)


25. The difference between Wechsler’s total scores on “Don’t Hold Test” and “Hold Tests” tells—
(A) About individual’s ability to succeed on manual jobs
(B) About pathology-related deficit it individual’s intelligence giving an index known as deterioration index or Di.
(C) About the quality aspect of individual’s intelligence
(D) About individual’s real intelligence as against the tested intelligence’.
Ans. (B)

Practice test psychology for UPSC prelims

Practice test psychology for UPSC prelims
UPSC IAS prelims Psychology
ias psychology prelims paper
1. Predicative validity is a type of—
(A) Criteria related validity
(B) Content validity
(C) Construct validity
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)

2. In education psychology there is a study of—
(A) Utility of education
(B) Process of learning and teaching
(C) Utility of psychological rules
(D) Way to solve the problem psychologically
Ans. (B)

3. Difficulty level of an item mean ?—
(A) Percentage of successful students
(B) Percentage of unsuccessful students
(C) Percentage of that student that comes after division of successful out of unsuccessful students
(D) Number of these students who would not give answer whether yes or no
Ans. (A)


4. The standard fact for standard score is—
(A) There is a fixed mean
(B) Standard deviation and mean both are fixed
(C) There is a fixed quartile
(D) There is a fixed median
Ans. (B)

5. ‘Shanti and Ahinsa’ was an important trait in Mahatma Gandhi. His trait is categorised in—
(A) Cardinal trait
(B) Central trait
(C) Surface trait
(D) Dynamic trait
Ans. (A)


6. Following are the pairs or theoretical approaches to personality and the1iauthors or supporters. Which of these paring is not correct?
Approaches Author
(A) Dimensional approach —Costa, Mecare and Eysenek
(B) Trait approach —Ailport & Cattell
(C) Phenomenological approach —Maslow & Rogers
(D) Constitutional approach —Murphy & Morgan
Ans. (D)

7. Hereditary factors includes all of the following except—
(A) Physical health
(B) Body chemistry and the glandular success.
(C) Nervous system
(D) Mental abilities
Ans. (D)



8. Introversion, in contrast to extroversion, is highly correlated to—
(A) Intelligence
(B) Abstract thinking
(C) Sociability
(D) Creativity
Ans. (B)

9. “Past is past and there is no string with past”. Which psychologists theory of personality is related with this statement most?
(A) Freud
(B) Murray
(C) Skinner
(D) Allport
Ans. (D)


10. In emotional excitement adrenaline is released into the blood which causes—
(A) Increased activation of the individual
(B) Increased heart beat
(C) Increased respiration rate
(D) Slowing down of digestive process
(E) Increased blood sugar
(F) Increased alpha waves
(G) All of these
Ans. (G)


11. According to Kretschmer the temperament of asthenic type of personality is—
(A) Schizoid
(B) Cycloid
(C) Somatotonia
(D) Viscerotonia
Ans. (A)

12. According to Adler, personality development is generally influenced by reactions to—
(A) Inferiority feelings
(B) Sensory stimuli
(C) Superiority feelings
(D) All types of strong feelings
Ans. (A)


13. A light-hearted, carefree sociable individual will show a high score in—
(A) Anxiety
(B) Extroversion
(C) Repression
(D) Aggression
Ans. (B)

14. Thinking differs from imagination in all of the following except—
(A) Thinking ‘is goal-directed, problem- based, imagination is not
(B) Thinking is linked with reality, imagination is not
(C) Thinking is systematic and involves reasoning, imagination is not o
(D) Thinking calls for high level mental ability, imagination does not require high intelligence or mental ability
Ans. (D)

15. Mental activity which is controlled by the wishes of the individual is called—
(A) Autistic thinking
(B) Pleasure thinking
(C) Creative thinking
(D) No thinking
Ans. (A)


16. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) There is no evidence for the existence of reasoning in animals
(B) Thinking stops during paralysis
(C) Recall in reasoning is random
(D) Reasoning can occur without language
Ans. (D)


17. Illusion is a kind of—
(A) Misperception
(B) Trick
(C) Perception
(D) Hallucination
Ans. (C)

18. The scales to measure the psychological distance between any two stimuli was developed by—
(A) Weber
(B) Fechner
(C) Titchner
(D) Binet
Ans. (B)


19. In signal detection theory there are two things in which we can identify a stimulus that is—
(a) Sensitivity measure
(b) Observer’s criterion
(c) Ability to make perceptual discrimination
(d) Intensity of stimulus
Give the answer on the basis of code—
(A) a and d
(B) b and c
(C) a and b
(D) c and d
Ans. (C)

20. The basic traits that make up the human personality according to Cattell are known as—
(A) Cardinal Traits
(C) Source Traits
(B) Central Traits
(D) Surface Traits
Ans. (C)

21. Error variance can be minimized by—
(A) Matching participants
(B) Proper measurement of the dependent variable
(C) Holding independent variable constant
(D) Randomization
Ans. (A)

22. First revision of Binet-Simon test of intelligence was done in—
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1911
(D) 1908
Ans. (D)
23. The relationship of mathematical signs, symbols, forms studied with the help of General mental ability are called—
(A) Social intelligence
(B) Abstract intelligence
(C) Concrete intelligence
(D) Verbal intelligence
Ans. (B)

24. Which of the following is not a step in Zimbardo and Ruch’s (1977) “servo-mechanism” which explains the role of peripheral theory of thinking?
(A) Input, i.e., impulses produced by stimuli.
(B) Throughput, i.e., the nervous system which receives input stimuli and processes them.
(C) Output, i.e., Muscular activities that result from processing of impulses in the throughput.
(D) Feedback, i.e., information of muscular activities entering in the organism as input and being systematized.
(E) Neuro-netwok, i.e., a network of neurons in the brain which receives and organises impulses.
Ans. (E)


25. If a student thinks to become an IAS Officer and make some possible changes. This is an example of—
(A) Autistic thinking
(B) Convergent thinking
(C) Divergent thinking
(D) Evaluative thinking
Ans. (A)

Instrumental Conditioning

Instrumental Conditioning
In Pavlovian conditioning the learning organism plays a purely passive role insofar as the delivery of the conditional and unconditional stimulus is concerned. In instrumental conditioning the organism plays a morbr less active role as far as the obtaining of reward or the avoidance of punishment i concerned. In a true sense the organism literally operates upon its environment hence also the name operant conditioning as coined by B.F.Skinner (1938).


Basic procedures in instrumental conditioning

Three basic features that characterize most instrumental conditioning experiments can be identified. First of all, the typical experimental plan uses procedures that involve, reward or punishment they being termed as reinforcers or reinforcing stimuli and the process being called reinforcement. The second, experimental plan can lead an organism to either produce or withhold some specified response. Thir4, a discriminative cue is ‘used in some experimental plan but not in others. A discriminative cue is a stimulus of some sort that tells the organism, in effect, when reinforcement can be obtained and when it cannot be obtained. It sets the appropriate occasion for the behavior that leads to reinforcement.
(1) Reward training
In this experiment a hungry white rat is placed in a twelve inches square box. This is a sound proof box known as Skinners box. It is also at times referred to as “experimental box”. In essence, the general procedures associated is that of simple reward training. The course of learning is marked much by trial and error. In the Skinner box experiment the rat at first accidentally presses the lever but when he discovers the reward associated with the pressing of the lever his lever pressing becomes intentional, directed towards the attainment of positive reinforcement.

(2) Discrimination training
The apparatus set up is the same as that in reward training with the addition of a small white light located in the wall of the box. This is referred to as the discriminative cue. In essence, the discriminative cue sets the occasion for the obtaining of reward and withholding the same. The process of experimental extension and that of spontaneous recovery can also be experimentally demonstrated via discriminative training.

(3) Escape training
In this type of training a dog is placed in one compartment of a two-compartment box. The two compartments are separated by a door, which can slide up and down. The door is arranged such that it can be dropped part way through a slot in the floor, creating a hurdle over which the dog can jump from the first compartment into the second. Both compartments are equipped with floors made of stainless steel bars through which an electric current is passed. The bars are wired in such a way that when current is passed through them a shock of moderate intensity is delivered to the dog through the dogs feet. At some time determined by the experimenter, the door drops and, at the same instance, current is turned on in the compartment the dog isin. The shock continues until the dog jumps over tl hurdle and reaches the ‘safe’ compartment, in which the shock is not present. The door closes and the dog ‘rests’ until the experimenter again drops the door and turns on the shock in the second compartment. The dog must then jump the hurdle once again, moving back to the original compartment, which is now safe. This process continues for as many trials as the experimenter may call for.
It might seen reasonable to think of escape training as a rather special case of reward training, on the assumption that escaping a noxious stimulus like shock is,warding.
(4) Avoidance learning
The same appatus used in the escape training paradigm is used with a few modifications. An easily visible overhead light is put in each compartment. This light act as a discriminative cue signaling the onset of electric shock within a specified period of ten seconds The dog can, on the signalling jump to the safe.compartment to avoid the punishing stimuli. Thus, this discriminative cue sets the occasion for the dog’s response.
An analogue can be drawn with discrimination training. The dog slowly begins to understand the cue provided by the light and comes to learn the appropriate occasion for escaping a punishing stimuli.
This procedure can also be labelled as a “two way active avoidance training” since the dog must not only actively produces a response to avoid punishment, but also, at the same time jumps across the hurdle separating the two compartments, each of which is “dangerous” at specified times. If only one compartment is permanently unsafe and the other permanently safe then we can label this procedure as “one-way active avoidance training’
(5) Punishment training
This training requires an organism to either withhold or omit a response in order to obtain reward or avoid punishment. In this type of training we continue beyond the point where reward training is accomplished with a few modifications in the Skinner box. The lever is to be connected to an electricity regulating device so that mild current can be passed on to the lever when required. Beyond the junction of reward training lever pressing is associated with reward as well as punishment in the form of mild electric shocks. The organism will now have to learn to withhold a rewarding response to avoid shock. This is an approach-avoidance conflict. It chooses the avoidance side and becomes passive to lever pressing activity. This passiveness as a result of punishment training can be also called “passive avoidance learning”

(6) Omission training
This is more or less similar to punishment training other than the basis of obtaining reinforcement. Reinforcement is based on a positive reward rather than avoidance due to a punishing stimulus. Here also we continue beyond the point where reward training was accomplished. Thereafter we reverse the procedure in the sense that lever pressings are no longer reinforced but failure to do so is. This can be done without any rules binding the process. The outcome is that the rat will learn to withhold or omit the lever pressing response in order to assure a continued flow of food pellets.

(8) Free Vs Controlled Responding
Instrumental conditioning can involve either of these two procedures. These at times are also referred to as free-operant and discrete-trial procedures respectively. The difference between the two is based on the controls of the opportunity to make the instrumental behavior in question. It is termed free-operant when the subject controls the opportunity to make the instrumental behavior and when the experimenter controls the same it is’ termed as discrete-trial or controlled responding.

Three basic laws of Pavlovian conditioning

Three basic laws of Pavlovian conditioning
1. Law of Excitation : It says that if a previously neutral CS is paired with a UCS, the CS’ acquires excitatory properties, that is, it acquires the properly of eliciting the CR.

2. Law of internal inhibition : Internal inhibition develops w’en the conditioned stimulus is not attended by he unconditioned, whether this be once or always, but in the latter event, only under certain circumstances. Thus come about extinction, retardation, conditioned inhibition, and differential inhibition. If a CS is not applied repeatedly, the CR gradually ceases to occur. This phenomena is termed as experimental extinction. In another case one of two similar stimuli, but not the other, is applied repeatedly, the second stimulus is inhibited as a special case of extinctive inhibition. This is referred to as differential inhibition.
Thus, this law characterizes a group inhibition phenomena which are caused by changes in the conditioned association itself and, unlike the various forms of unconditional inhibition, are acquired in learning processes
3. Law of external inhibition : In essence this law states that excitatory or inhibitory processes in conditioning can each be disrupted by novel distracting stimuli, This is called the law of external inhibition since the inhibition is not being acquired in the learning process but from outside.

Conditioning in PSYCHOLOGY

Conditioning in  PSYCHOLOGY 

Conditioning is a form of associative learning which results in changes in an organism’s behavior as a consequence of exposure to certain temporal relations between events. Conditioning has two forms. Classical or Pavlovian conditioning and instrumental or operant conditioning. In experimental studies of both varieties, the experimenter presents, an event of biological or motivational significance usually termed as reinforcer it may be food, water, or access to a sexual partner; or it may be a painful or distressing event such as a brief electric shock or the administration of a drug which causes nausea. Classical and instrumental conditioning differ in the other event with which this reinforcer is associated


Classical Conditioning
This type of conditioning was originally given by Ivan P. Pavlov (1927). In his classical experiment Pavlov designed an apparatus that could measure how much a dog’s mouth watered in response to food or other things in the environment. The dog, was strapped comfortably in a harness, standing on the experimental table in a sound proof roon. A tube was connected from the duct of the dog’s slivary gland to a dish to accumulate saliva for measurement purpose. Pavlov then sounded a tuningiork and noted that other than looking around the dog did not do any other response. After some time a plate of meat powder was placed before the dog. On getting the smell and eating the same the dog salivated. After the dog had eaten the plate was removed. Some time after the tuning fork was sounded again and the same procedure repeated and observations made. It was noted that after repeating this procedure a few more times, the dog on hearing the sound of the tuning fork started to salivate
Components of Pavlovian conditioning.

The following constitute the fundamental components and procedures of Pavlovian conditioning:

The unconditional stimulus (UCS) : Pavlov referred to the meat powder in his salivary conditioning experiment as a UCS. The word unconditioned means that the stimulus in question need not require prior training to produce the desired response. Thus, the essential feature of a UCS is that it should reliably elicit a response without prior training.

The unconditional response (UCR) : The UCR is that response that is elicited by the UCS. Here again unconditional means that no prior association of stimulus-response is essential for producing the required response. Since the primary feature of the UCS-UCR relationship is that the UCS reliably elicits the UCR, the UCR is often referred to as a highly reflexive response, one which happens quickly and quite automatically when the UCS occurs.


The conditioned stimulus (CS) : The CS is that stimulus which comes to elicit a response by being paired properly in time with the UCS. In a very real sense, the appearance of the newly emerging response comes to be conditional’ upon the presentation of the CS, hence its name. The important feature of a CS is that it must be some stimulus which is within the sensory range of the organism and previously must be having a neutral effect with respect. to the reflex under study.
The conditioned response (CR): The CR is that learned reflex which arises when the CS is paired properly in time’ with tãe UCS. Sometimes, incidentally, the CR is referred to as a ‘conditional reflex’ for it becomes conditional upon the presentation of the CS.

Learning

Learning can be defined as any relatively permanent change in behavior which occurs as a result of practice or experience. This definition has three important components :
(a) Learning is a change in behavior, for the better or worse.
(b) It is a change that takes place through practice or experience; changes due to growth or maturation are not learning. This part of the definition distinguishes learning from innately controlled species specific behavior.
(c) Before, it can be called learning, the change must be relatively permanent, it must last for a fairly long period.’