Search This Blog

Thursday, May 14, 2015

Constitutional Law,Criminal Law Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Constitutional Law,Criminal Law Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Law Mcq test
Free online law Sample test
1. Consider the following statements
1. Truth is not a justification for seditious utterances.
2. Truth which does not have some effect of promoting disaffection towards the government is a justification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Case) (Major Subject)
A. Amjad Khan Vs State 1. Public servant and contempt of court
B. T.R.Thananjaya Vs Vasudevan 2. Common Intention to commit an offence
C. Gurdatta Mat Vs State of UP 3. Right of private defense
4. Inflicted injury leading to murder
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 4 1
(d) 3 1 4
Ans. (a)
3. Consider the following statements:
Anything is said to have been done dishonestly if it has been done with intention to
1. cause wrongful loss to any person and wrongful gain to another person.
2. cause injury to any person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The general defenses provided in General. Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code (IPC) can be pleaded
(a) for IPC offences only
(b) for IPC offences and offences under local law only
(c) for IPC offences and offences under special law only
(d) for IPC offences and offences under local or special
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following is/are the essential elements (s) to be proved for prosecuting a public servant for criminal misappropriation?
1. Custody
2. Entrustment
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both l and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
6. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Whether an article supplied for a minor, amounts to be necessary or not is
(a) a question of law
(b) a question of fact
(e) mixed question of law and
(d) decided solely at the discretion of the guardian
Ans. (b)
7. ‘A’ enters into a bet with ‘B’. ‘A’ promises that he will pay Rs. 50,000/- to ‘B’ if Australia defeats India in one day international being played at Delhi. ‘B’ in turn promises to pay Rs. 50,000/- to ‘A’ if India defeats Australia. India defeats Australia and ‘B’ instead of paying the amount to ‘A’ executes a promissory note in favour of ‘A’, promising that he will pay money On or before a specified date. No witness attests the promissory note. The promissory note is not registered, ‘B’ fails to pay within the stipulated time. On the basis of the above, which one of the following is the correct answer?
(a) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is not attested
(b) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is not registered
(c) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is for debt due on wagering contract
(d) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because betting should involve only cash transactions
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following statements is correct in regard to a contract for sale of immovable property?
(a) Time is always the essence of the contract
(b) Time is never the essence of the contract
(c) Time would not be regarded as the essence of the contract unless it is shown that the parties intended so
(d) Since it is a sale of immovable property, even parties cannot intend to make time, the essence of the contract
Ans. (c)
9. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Doctrine of frustration comes into play
(a) when both the parties are frustrated
(b) when either of the parties is frustrated
(c) when the object has failed
(d) when there is commercial hardship
Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following statements:
1. Doctrine of frustration is not applicable when the rights and obligations of tjie parties arise under the Transfer of Property Act.
2. If and when there is frustration, the contract automatically comes to an end.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
When a contract is caused by fraud, the contract is
(a) void or initio
(b) voidable from inception
(c) voidable by subsequent events
(d) valid
Ans. (b)
12. Consider the following statements:
Where the tender of performance is rejected by the other party,
1. the promisor has to still perform the contract but can claim damages.
2. the promisor is excused from further performance and is entitled to sue the promisee for breach of contract.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
13. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Generally, quasi-contractual obligations are based on the theory of
(a) implied term
(b) just and reasonable solution
(c) implied-in-fact contract
(d) unjust enrichment
Ans. (d)
14. Assertion (A): If A does work B without his request or knowledge, he can sue for the value of his work.
Reason (R): Acquiescence can be presumed from silence
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
15. Which one of the following statements is correct?
An agreement to which the consent of the promisee is freely given, is not void merely because the
(a) consideration is not there
(b) consideration is not adequate
(c) consideration is past
(d) consideration is not spelt out clearly
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Two manifestations of willingness to make the same bargain do not constitute a contract.
2. Contractual obligations arise if services are rendered which, in fact, fulfill the terms of an offer but are performed in ignorance that the offer exists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Case) (Principle)
A. Lalman Shukla Vs Gauri Dutt 1. Privity of contract
B. McPherson Vs Appana 2. General offer
C. Banwarilal Vs Sukhdarshan Dayal 3. Invitation to treat
D. M.C. Chackoo Vs State Bank of Travancore 4. Intention to create legal relationship
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (b)
18. consider the following statements:
In Bhagvandas Goverdhandas Kedia Vs Girdharilal Parshottamdas and Co, it was laid down that
1. section 4 does not imply that the contract is made qua the proposer at one place and qua the acceptor at another place.
2. the communication of acceptance should be from a person who has the authority to accept. Information received from an unauthorized person is ineffective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Cd) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
19. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Promissory estopple is
(a) a variant of deception
(b) not a form of contract
(c) an equitable doctrine
(d) a type of offer
Ans. (c)
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Misrepresentation is also a subtle species of fraud.
2. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not leave the matter to be determined according to the intention of the parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ant (c)
21 A, a public servant is authorized by warrant from court of justice to apprehend Z.B. knowing that fact and also that C is not Z, willfully represents to A that C is Z and thereby cause A to apprehend C. How does B abet?
(a) By way of instigation
(b) By way of conspiracy
(c) By way of aiding
(d) By way of supporting
Ans. (a)
22. Consider the following statements:
To constitute abetment it is
1. necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
2. not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
23. necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
Which of the statement given above represent(s) the correct position of law?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (a)
24. P instigates Q to cause the death of R. P gives a gun to Q to shoot at R. Q shoots at R in the presence of P causing R’s death.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both P and Q are liable for criminal conspiracy
(b) Both P and Q ire jointly liable for the murder of R
(c) Q is liable for murder, P is only an abettor
(d) Only P is liable for criminal conspiracy
Ans. (b)
25 What is the basic difference between an offence of abetment by conspiracy and the offence of criminal conspiracy?
(a) In case of conspiracy, mere agreement is enough whereas in case of abetment by conspiracy an act should have taken place in pursuance of conspiracy
(b) There is no difference at all
(c) In case of conspiracy, an act should also have taken place, but in case of abetment by conspiracy, no act needs to have taken place
(d) In case of abetment by conspiracy, there need not be an agreement whereas in case of criminal conspiracy, agreement is essential
Ans. (a)
26 Consider the following statements:
1. Intention is the essence of sedition.
2. Intention is irrelevant in sedition.
3. Result is the essence of sedition.
4. Intention and result both are important is sedition.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 4
Ans. (a)
27. Which of the following cases will amount(s) to culpable homicide?
1. A police constable fired at an unruly mob in obedience to the orders of his higher officer and killed several persons.
2, A person killed one of the offenders at the time of commission of robbery.
3. Death is caused without premeditation in a sudden fight.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
28. A cuts down a tree on B’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B’s possession, without B’s consent. A has committed. which offence?
(a) Criminal misappropriation
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Extortion
(d) Theft
Ans. (d)
29. The accused is a warehouse-keeper. The complainant, going on a journey, entrusts his furniture to the accused under a contract that the furniture would be returned on payment of stipulated sum of money. The accused sells the furniture. The accused is guilty of which one of the following?
(a) Criminal misappropriation
(b) Theft
(c) Robbery
(d) Criminal breach of trust
Ans. (d)
30. Consider the following statements:
1. A claim for damages arising out of breach of contract is not debt.
2. A person who enters into a contract with Government does not necessarily thereby undertake any public duty.
.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
31. Consider the following statements:
The communication of an acceptance is complete
1. as against the acceptor when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
2. as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
32. Consider the following statements:
1. According to Justice Patterson, consideration may be some benefit to the plaintiff or some detriment to the defendant.
2. According to Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, the definition of consideration requires that the act or abstinence should be done by promisee only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
33. What is the primary object of law of damages for a breach of contract?
(a) To enrich the party who sustained loss
(b) To give some type of compensation
(c) To punish the patty who committed breach of contract
(d) To put the party who sustained loss in the same position as if the contract has been performed
Ans. (d)
34. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
For breach of contract
(a) punitive damages are not recoverable
(b) damages are compensatory, not penal
(c) an inconvenience caused by the breach of contract is not taken into account while assessing damages
(d) motive for and the manner of breach are not taken into account while assessing damages
Ans. (c)
35. Which one of the following does not amount to fraud?
(a) Active concealment of fact
(b) A promise without any intention of performing it
(c) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
(d) A representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
Ans. (d)
36. Consider the following statements:
1. When consent to an agreement is caused by undue influence, the agreement is a contract voidable at the opinion of the party whose consent was so caused.
2. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
37. Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement to agree in the future is void, for there is no certainty whether the parties will be able to agree.
2. Where only a part or a clause of the contract is uncertain, but the rest is capable of bearing a reasonably certain meaning, the contract will be void.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
38. What is committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by the J.P.C., or the unlawful detaining or threatening to detain any property to the prejudice of any person with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement called?
(a) Undue influence
(b) Fraud
(b) Coercion
(d) intimidation
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following statements regarding fraud and misrepresentation:
1. Both render the contract voidable.
2. Misrepresentation is a cause of action in tort for damages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In cases of general offers, communication of acceptance is not necessary
(b) Acceptance has to be made in the manner prescribed by the proposer (if not prescribed, then in some usual and reasonable manner)
(c) A communication of acceptance to a person other than the offerer is no communication in the eyes of law
(d) The communication may not be made by acceptor himself
Ans. (d)
41. Which one of the following is an essential component of a valid contract?
(a) Social and economic pressures, the parties are exposed to
(b) Dominance of one party over the other
(c) Legal influence of the parties
(d) Competence and the contractual capacities of the parties
Ans. (d)
42. Which of the following agreement(s) is/are void?
1. Agreement without consideration.
2. Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings.
3. Agreement affected by fraud.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) l and 2
Ans. (d)
43. What is an agreement to discover a treasure by magic?
(a) Valid contract as it is voluntarily concluded
(b) Void contract as it is impossible of performance
(c) Voidable contract as it amounts to misrepresentation
(d) Unenforceable contract as it is against notions of public policy
Ans. (b)
44. A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000/- if B’s house is burnt.
What type of contract is this?
(a) Wagering contract
(b) Unlawful contract
(c) Contingent contract
(d) Voidable contract
Ans. (c)
45. A supplies to B- A lunatic with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. Can A recover the value of necessaries from B?
1. A cannot recover as B is not competent to make a contract.
2. A cannot recover as no legal action lies against B.
3. A can recover by making B’s property liable.
Which of the above is/are the valid reason(s)?
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
46. Consider the following statements:
1. If an infant obtains property or goods by misrepresenting his age, he can be compelled to restore it even though the infant has sold the goods or converted them.
2. There is no estoppel against minor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
47. Which one of the following is correct as per Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act 1872?
A contingent contract is a
(a) contract to do something only if some event, collateral to such contract, does not happen
(b) contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract happens
(c) contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does not happen
(d) contract not to do something. If some event, collateral to such contract happens
Ans. (c)
48. Consider the following statements:
1. A written and registered agreement based on natural love and affection between near relatives is enforceable without consideration.
2. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
49. Consider the following statements:
1. A shopkeeper’s catalogue of price is not an offer.
2. An auctioneer’s announcement that specified goods will be sold by auction on a certain day is not an offer to hold the auction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
50. Which one of the following is explicitly stated in Section 2(b) of the Indian Contract Act 1872?
(a) A proposal, when accepted becomes a promise
(b) A proposal, when accepted become a contract
(c) A proposal, when accepted becomes an agreement
(d) A proposal, when accepted becomes assurance
Ans. (a)
51. By threat of suicide. A induced his wife and son to execute a contract.
What is it according to the Indian Contract Act?
(a) An unlawful contract
(b) voidable contract
(c) A void contract
(d) It is not a contract at all
Ans. (a)
52. Directions: The given item consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal.
Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.
Ans (b)
53. Supreme Court of India stuck down Section 303 of I.P.C. as unconstitutional in which one of the following cases
(a) Machhi Singh vs State of Punjab
(b) Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab
(a) Santa Singh vs State of Punjab
(d) Mithu vs State of Punjab
Ans. (d)

History Solved Question Paper for all Entrance Test

History Solved Question Paper for all Entrance Test
1. With a view to encouraging the spread of western education among the Muslims, the Muhammadan Literary Socie was founded in 1863 at—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Aligarh
(C) Delhi
(D) Karachi
Ans. (A)

2. The East India. Company was set up in the year—
(A) 1600
(C) 1625
(B) 1610
(D) 1590
Ans. (A)

3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List I    List II
(a) Punnapara Vayalar Movement  1. U.P.
(b) Tebhaga Movement   2. Kerala
(c) Telengana Movement   3. Bengal
(d) Eka Movement   4. Andhra
Codes:
(a)  (b)  (c)  (d)
(A)  4 2  3  1  
(B)  3 2  4  1
(C)  2  3  4  1
(D)  2  3  1  4
Ans. (B)

4. Who among the following leaders of the Revolt of 1857 wrote to the French emperor “The acts of injustice and perjury of the English Government blaze on all sides like the rays of the sun”?
(A) Nana Sahib
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Tantya Tope
(D) Brijis Qadr
Ans. (A)

5. The Congress Ministries in the seven provinces of British India resigned in October 1939 because—
(A) Linlithgo declared emergency in India at the outbreak of the Second World War on 3 September, 1939
(B) Gandhi did not want involvement of India with the violence of war
(C) India as a British colony was automatically committed to belligerency by Linlithgo without bothering to consult the Provincial Congress Ministries or any Indian leader
(D) The Congress Working Committee which met immediately after the outbreak of the war failed to elicit .a satisfactory reply from Linhithgo about the war aims of Britain and bow these were going to affect India during and after the war
Ans. (C)

6. Pitt’s India Act, which was meant to remove the defects of the Regulating Act was passed in the year—
(A) 1781 A.D.
(B) 1782A.D.
(C) 1784A.D
(D) 1786A.D.
Ans. (C)

7. Which of the following newspapers advocated revolutionary terrorism during the freedom struggle?
1. The Sandhya
2. The Yugantar
3. The Kal
Select the correct answer from the codes given below —
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (B)


8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists —
List I   List II
(a) Bhagat Jawahar Mal  1. Wahabi Movement
(b) Vilayat Ali  2. Kuka Movement
(c) Sayyid Fadl  3. Moplah Revolt
(d) Khoodi Mallah 4. Pabna Riots
Codes:
(a)     (b)  (c)  (d)
(A)  2 1  4   3  
(B)  1 2  3   4
(C)  2  1  3   4
(D)  1  2  4   3
Ans. (A)

9. The Hindustan Republican Association founded for organising an armed revolution was renamed as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association under the leadership of—
(A) Acharya Narendra Dev
(B) Ram Prasad Bismil
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) S. A. Dalige
Ans. (C)

10. The East India Company set up its first factory in the south at—
(A) Madras
(B) Telangana
(C) Masulipattnam
(D) Hyderabad
Ans. (C)

11. The Moplah Rebellion (1927) took place in—
(A) Telengana
(B) Malabar
(C) Marathwada
(D) Vidarbha
Ans. (B)

12. Which of the following reasons intensified the labour movement in India in the first quarter of the 20th century?
1. Influence of British labour movement.
2. Russian Revolution of 1917.
3. Rise in cost of living.
4. Legislative measures of the British against Indian labour.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below —
Codes:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) l and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1and 3
Ans. (A)

13.The Congress Nationalist Party was formed to act as a powerful pressure group within the Congress by—
(A) Motilal Nehru and Tej Bahadur Sapru
(B) Mrs Annie Besant and C. P. Ramaswami Iyer
(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya and M. S. Aney
(D) Surendranath Banerjee and C. R. Das
Ans. (C)

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer—
List I       List II
(Period)     (Revenue settlement)
(a) 1833  1. Ryotwari
(b) 1793  2. Mahalwari
(c) 1792  3. Zamindari
(d) 1769  4. Quinquennial
5. Decennial
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1       2  3  4
(B) 2 3  1  4
(C) 2 3  5  4
(D) 3 2  1  5
Ans. (C)

15. The Congress President who conducted negotiations with Cripps in 1942 and Wavell at the Simla Conference was—
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) J. B. Kripalani
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
Ans. (A)

16. To which state does the following statement refer to: The loyalty of whose inhabitants to the British had become proverbial, into a hot- bet of discontent and intrigue?
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Jhansi
(C) Oudh
(D) Gwalior
Ans. (C)

17. Which of the following accounted for agrarian crisis during the late seventeenth century?
1. Inbuilt weaknesses in Jagir system
2. Monetary fluctuations
3. Natural calamities
4. Administrative failure
Choose the correct answer by using the codes given below —
Codes:
(A) l and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (A)

18. The British established their trading centre in the following order—
(A) Surat, Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(B) Surat, Madras, Calcutta, Bombay
(C) Madras, Calcutta, Bombay, Surat
(D) Calcutta, Madras, Surat, Bombay
Ans. (B)

19. The Bombay Mill Hand’s Association of 1890 was the first of a kind of trade union in India. It was founded by—
(A) Sadipada Banerjee
(B) N. M. Lokhande
(C) M. N. Roy
(D) S. M. Joshi
Ans. (B)

20. Subhas Chandra Bose fought the Congress Presidential elections in 1939 on the ground that—
(A) He did not like the nomination of Sitaramayya
(B) He pleaded for elections instead of nominations
(C) He was opposed to Gandhiji
(D) He fovoured an aggressive policy which was opposed by the Congress leaders
Ans. (D)

21. Among the following European powers who decided to concentrate their power in South East Asia instead of India?
(A) The Portuguese
(B) The Dutch
(C) The French
(D) 1The British
Ans. (B)

22. Which of the following were reasons for Congressmen all over the country offering individual Satyagraha in 1942?
1. The Congress demand for a national government had been rejected.
2. The freedom of speech against the war effort was denied.
3. The British rulers were not prepared to admit that India was a belligerent not of her own free will.
4. Gandhi offered Satyagraha himself to cause greater embarrassment to the government.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —
Codes:
(A) l and 2
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (A)

23. Under the Permanent Settlement, the Zamindars share in the collected land revenue was —
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/11
(D) 1/6
Ans. (B)

24. The Bombay Mill Hands’ Association of 1890 was the first of a kind of trade union in India. It was founded by—
(A) Sadipada Banerjee
(B) N.M. Lokhande
(C) M.N. Roy
(D) S.M. Joshi
Ans. (B)

25. Which among the following presidency towns the local body came into existence first?
(A) Madras
(B) Calcutta
(C) Bombay
(D) Delhi
Ans. (B)

Monday, May 4, 2015

History Solved Question Paper

History Solved Question Paper
1. With respect to food discipline of the Buddhist Sramanas, The Buddhist monks were permitted to—
1. Beg’
2. Accept invitation for meals
3. Accept offerings sent to the monastery
4. Express their wish for any particular kind of food
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (D)
2. Amri culture flourished in—
(A) The Kutch region
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Baluchistan
(D) Sind
Ans. (D)
3. Which one of the following was the most westerly out post of the Harrappan culture?
(A) Lothal
(B) Sutkagendor
(C) Rangpur
(D) Manda
Ans. (B)
4. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Surkotda: Ploughed field
(B) Harrappa: Horse remains
(C) Rangpur: Rice Husk
(D) Chanhudaro: Citadel
Ans. (C)
5. Which one of the following is the most important feature of Harrappan cities?
(A) Large size
(B) Huge buildings
(C) Planned layout
(D) Wide Roads
Ans. (C)
6. A terracotta replica of a plough has been found at—
(A) Banwali
(B) Kalibanga
(C) Rakhigarhi
(D) Rangpur
Ans. (A)
7. Which one of the following characteristics of Buddhism distinguishes it from Jaimsm?
(A) Non-acceptance of the authority of the Vedas
(B) Belief in the efficacy of action
(C) Rejection of both extreme pleasures and self-mortification
(D) Attitude of non-injury towards all beings
Ans. (C)
8. At which one of the following places was the Jaina canonical literature codified in the 5th century AD?
(A) Vallabhi
(B) Vaishali
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Patliputra
Ans. (A)
9. Which one of the following statements is not continued by the evidence of archaeology?
(A) People. of Bahrain islands acted as middlemen in the trade between Indus & Sumerian people in the third millennium BC
(B) Lothal played an important role in the sea-borne trade between the Indus culture & Western Asia
(C) The Harrappans were supplanted by the Aryans
(D) The Harappans knew the lost-wax technique of manufacturing metal images
Ans. (C)
10. Which of the following language was adopted by Jainas to preach their doctrines to the common people?
(A) Sanskrit
(B) Pali
(C) Prakrit
(D) Apbransha
Ans. (C)
11. Which one of the following was not included in the Noble Eightfold path of Buddhism?
(A) Right exercise
(B) Right memory
(C) Right meditation
(D) Right education
Ans. (D)
12. At which one of the following sets of Harrappan sites, have structures with fire altars been discovered?
(A) Chanhudaro & Amri
(B) Banwali & Kalibanga
(C) Harrappa & Mohenjodaro
(D) Almgirpur & Daimabad
Ans. (B)
13. Which one of the following is more probable regarding the Harrappan script?
(A) It is distinctly Proto-Dravidian
(B) It is distinctly Sanskritic
(C) It is not alphabetical but mainly pictographic
(D) The language used by these scripts has definite Sumerian connections
Ans. (C)
14. Which one of the following Harrappan sites is not located in Gujarat?
(A) Surkotda
(B) Rangpur
(C) Sutkagendor
(D) Desalpur
Ans. (C)
15. Along with the ‘Late Harrappan artifacts, Painted grey were has been found at—
(A) Ropar
(B) Bhagvanpura
(C) Banwali
(D) Daulatpur
Ans. (B)
16. Who among the following has worked on the decipherment of the Indus script?
(A) H. D. Sankalia
(B) B.B.La1
(C) I. Mahadevan
(D) Vincent Arthur smith
Ans. (C)
17. The author of the ‘Malvikagnimitrain’ was—
(A) Kalidas
(B) Tulsidas
(C) Kabir
(D) Aryabhatta
Ans. (A)
18. Match List I with List II & select the correct answer—
List I List II
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Lothal
(c) Banwali
(d) Kalibanga
1. Twin burials
2. Corbelled drain
3. Furrow
4. Terracotta replica of a plough
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (D)
19. Which of the following are not included in the Vedic Literature?
(A) Samhitas
(B) Aranyakas
(C) Smritis
(D) Upnishada
Ans. (C)
20. Which one of following sites contains the evidence of cemtery ‘H’ culture?
(A) Chanhudaro
(B) Harrappa
(C) Mohenjodaro
(D) Kalibanga
Ans. (B)
21. Indika was written by—
(A) Pliny
(B) Megasthenese
(C) Strabo
(D) Justin
Ans. (B)
22. The granary discovered at Harrappa was located—
(A) Within the citadel
(B) In the lower Town
(C) Near River Ravi
(D) Beside the western gate of the city
Ans. (B)
23. Who was the author of the Mahabhasya?
(A) Patanjali
(B) Bhasa
(C) Vakptai
(D) Katyayani
Ans. (A)
24. The scene reminiscent of the well-known folk tale ‘The clever fox’ from the Panchatantra is depicted on a pot from an Indus site. The pot was discovered from—
(A) Harrappa
(B) Lothal
(C) Chanhudaro
(D) Kalibanga
Ans. (A)
25. The Arthasastra was a treatise on—
(A) Economics
(B) Political Philosophy
(C) State craft and Administration
Ans. (C)