Constitutional Law,Criminal Law Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Constitutional Law,Criminal Law Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Law Mcq test
Free online law Sample test
1. Consider the following statements
1. Truth is not a justification for seditious utterances.
2. Truth which does not have some effect of promoting disaffection towards the government is a justification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Case) (Major Subject)
A. Amjad Khan Vs State 1. Public servant and contempt of court
B. T.R.Thananjaya Vs Vasudevan 2. Common Intention to commit an offence
C. Gurdatta Mat Vs State of UP 3. Right of private defense
4. Inflicted injury leading to murder
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 4 1
(d) 3 1 4
Ans. (a)
3. Consider the following statements:
Anything is said to have been done dishonestly if it has been done with intention to
1. cause wrongful loss to any person and wrongful gain to another person.
2. cause injury to any person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The general defenses provided in General. Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code (IPC) can be pleaded
(a) for IPC offences only
(b) for IPC offences and offences under local law only
(c) for IPC offences and offences under special law only
(d) for IPC offences and offences under local or special
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following is/are the essential elements (s) to be proved for prosecuting a public servant for criminal misappropriation?
1. Custody
2. Entrustment
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both l and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
6. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Whether an article supplied for a minor, amounts to be necessary or not is
(a) a question of law
(b) a question of fact
(e) mixed question of law and
(d) decided solely at the discretion of the guardian
Ans. (b)
7. ‘A’ enters into a bet with ‘B’. ‘A’ promises that he will pay Rs. 50,000/- to ‘B’ if Australia defeats India in one day international being played at Delhi. ‘B’ in turn promises to pay Rs. 50,000/- to ‘A’ if India defeats Australia. India defeats Australia and ‘B’ instead of paying the amount to ‘A’ executes a promissory note in favour of ‘A’, promising that he will pay money On or before a specified date. No witness attests the promissory note. The promissory note is not registered, ‘B’ fails to pay within the stipulated time. On the basis of the above, which one of the following is the correct answer?
(a) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is not attested
(b) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is not registered
(c) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is for debt due on wagering contract
(d) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because betting should involve only cash transactions
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following statements is correct in regard to a contract for sale of immovable property?
(a) Time is always the essence of the contract
(b) Time is never the essence of the contract
(c) Time would not be regarded as the essence of the contract unless it is shown that the parties intended so
(d) Since it is a sale of immovable property, even parties cannot intend to make time, the essence of the contract
Ans. (c)
9. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Doctrine of frustration comes into play
(a) when both the parties are frustrated
(b) when either of the parties is frustrated
(c) when the object has failed
(d) when there is commercial hardship
Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following statements:
1. Doctrine of frustration is not applicable when the rights and obligations of tjie parties arise under the Transfer of Property Act.
2. If and when there is frustration, the contract automatically comes to an end.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
When a contract is caused by fraud, the contract is
(a) void or initio
(b) voidable from inception
(c) voidable by subsequent events
(d) valid
Ans. (b)
12. Consider the following statements:
Where the tender of performance is rejected by the other party,
1. the promisor has to still perform the contract but can claim damages.
2. the promisor is excused from further performance and is entitled to sue the promisee for breach of contract.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
13. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Generally, quasi-contractual obligations are based on the theory of
(a) implied term
(b) just and reasonable solution
(c) implied-in-fact contract
(d) unjust enrichment
Ans. (d)
14. Assertion (A): If A does work B without his request or knowledge, he can sue for the value of his work.
Reason (R): Acquiescence can be presumed from silence
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
15. Which one of the following statements is correct?
An agreement to which the consent of the promisee is freely given, is not void merely because the
(a) consideration is not there
(b) consideration is not adequate
(c) consideration is past
(d) consideration is not spelt out clearly
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Two manifestations of willingness to make the same bargain do not constitute a contract.
2. Contractual obligations arise if services are rendered which, in fact, fulfill the terms of an offer but are performed in ignorance that the offer exists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Case) (Principle)
A. Lalman Shukla Vs Gauri Dutt 1. Privity of contract
B. McPherson Vs Appana 2. General offer
C. Banwarilal Vs Sukhdarshan Dayal 3. Invitation to treat
D. M.C. Chackoo Vs State Bank of Travancore 4. Intention to create legal relationship
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (b)
18. consider the following statements:
In Bhagvandas Goverdhandas Kedia Vs Girdharilal Parshottamdas and Co, it was laid down that
1. section 4 does not imply that the contract is made qua the proposer at one place and qua the acceptor at another place.
2. the communication of acceptance should be from a person who has the authority to accept. Information received from an unauthorized person is ineffective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Cd) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
19. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Promissory estopple is
(a) a variant of deception
(b) not a form of contract
(c) an equitable doctrine
(d) a type of offer
Ans. (c)
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Misrepresentation is also a subtle species of fraud.
2. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not leave the matter to be determined according to the intention of the parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ant (c)
21 A, a public servant is authorized by warrant from court of justice to apprehend Z.B. knowing that fact and also that C is not Z, willfully represents to A that C is Z and thereby cause A to apprehend C. How does B abet?
(a) By way of instigation
(b) By way of conspiracy
(c) By way of aiding
(d) By way of supporting
Ans. (a)
22. Consider the following statements:
To constitute abetment it is
1. necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
2. not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
23. necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
Which of the statement given above represent(s) the correct position of law?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (a)
24. P instigates Q to cause the death of R. P gives a gun to Q to shoot at R. Q shoots at R in the presence of P causing R’s death.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both P and Q are liable for criminal conspiracy
(b) Both P and Q ire jointly liable for the murder of R
(c) Q is liable for murder, P is only an abettor
(d) Only P is liable for criminal conspiracy
Ans. (b)
25 What is the basic difference between an offence of abetment by conspiracy and the offence of criminal conspiracy?
(a) In case of conspiracy, mere agreement is enough whereas in case of abetment by conspiracy an act should have taken place in pursuance of conspiracy
(b) There is no difference at all
(c) In case of conspiracy, an act should also have taken place, but in case of abetment by conspiracy, no act needs to have taken place
(d) In case of abetment by conspiracy, there need not be an agreement whereas in case of criminal conspiracy, agreement is essential
Ans. (a)
26 Consider the following statements:
1. Intention is the essence of sedition.
2. Intention is irrelevant in sedition.
3. Result is the essence of sedition.
4. Intention and result both are important is sedition.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 4
Ans. (a)
27. Which of the following cases will amount(s) to culpable homicide?
1. A police constable fired at an unruly mob in obedience to the orders of his higher officer and killed several persons.
2, A person killed one of the offenders at the time of commission of robbery.
3. Death is caused without premeditation in a sudden fight.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
28. A cuts down a tree on B’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B’s possession, without B’s consent. A has committed. which offence?
(a) Criminal misappropriation
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Extortion
(d) Theft
Ans. (d)
29. The accused is a warehouse-keeper. The complainant, going on a journey, entrusts his furniture to the accused under a contract that the furniture would be returned on payment of stipulated sum of money. The accused sells the furniture. The accused is guilty of which one of the following?
(a) Criminal misappropriation
(b) Theft
(c) Robbery
(d) Criminal breach of trust
Ans. (d)
30. Consider the following statements:
1. A claim for damages arising out of breach of contract is not debt.
2. A person who enters into a contract with Government does not necessarily thereby undertake any public duty.
.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
31. Consider the following statements:
The communication of an acceptance is complete
1. as against the acceptor when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
2. as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
32. Consider the following statements:
1. According to Justice Patterson, consideration may be some benefit to the plaintiff or some detriment to the defendant.
2. According to Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, the definition of consideration requires that the act or abstinence should be done by promisee only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
33. What is the primary object of law of damages for a breach of contract?
(a) To enrich the party who sustained loss
(b) To give some type of compensation
(c) To punish the patty who committed breach of contract
(d) To put the party who sustained loss in the same position as if the contract has been performed
Ans. (d)
34. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
For breach of contract
(a) punitive damages are not recoverable
(b) damages are compensatory, not penal
(c) an inconvenience caused by the breach of contract is not taken into account while assessing damages
(d) motive for and the manner of breach are not taken into account while assessing damages
Ans. (c)
35. Which one of the following does not amount to fraud?
(a) Active concealment of fact
(b) A promise without any intention of performing it
(c) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
(d) A representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
Ans. (d)
36. Consider the following statements:
1. When consent to an agreement is caused by undue influence, the agreement is a contract voidable at the opinion of the party whose consent was so caused.
2. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
37. Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement to agree in the future is void, for there is no certainty whether the parties will be able to agree.
2. Where only a part or a clause of the contract is uncertain, but the rest is capable of bearing a reasonably certain meaning, the contract will be void.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
38. What is committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by the J.P.C., or the unlawful detaining or threatening to detain any property to the prejudice of any person with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement called?
(a) Undue influence
(b) Fraud
(b) Coercion
(d) intimidation
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following statements regarding fraud and misrepresentation:
1. Both render the contract voidable.
2. Misrepresentation is a cause of action in tort for damages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In cases of general offers, communication of acceptance is not necessary
(b) Acceptance has to be made in the manner prescribed by the proposer (if not prescribed, then in some usual and reasonable manner)
(c) A communication of acceptance to a person other than the offerer is no communication in the eyes of law
(d) The communication may not be made by acceptor himself
Ans. (d)
41. Which one of the following is an essential component of a valid contract?
(a) Social and economic pressures, the parties are exposed to
(b) Dominance of one party over the other
(c) Legal influence of the parties
(d) Competence and the contractual capacities of the parties
Ans. (d)
42. Which of the following agreement(s) is/are void?
1. Agreement without consideration.
2. Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings.
3. Agreement affected by fraud.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) l and 2
Ans. (d)
43. What is an agreement to discover a treasure by magic?
(a) Valid contract as it is voluntarily concluded
(b) Void contract as it is impossible of performance
(c) Voidable contract as it amounts to misrepresentation
(d) Unenforceable contract as it is against notions of public policy
Ans. (b)
44. A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000/- if B’s house is burnt.
What type of contract is this?
(a) Wagering contract
(b) Unlawful contract
(c) Contingent contract
(d) Voidable contract
Ans. (c)
45. A supplies to B- A lunatic with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. Can A recover the value of necessaries from B?
1. A cannot recover as B is not competent to make a contract.
2. A cannot recover as no legal action lies against B.
3. A can recover by making B’s property liable.
Which of the above is/are the valid reason(s)?
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
46. Consider the following statements:
1. If an infant obtains property or goods by misrepresenting his age, he can be compelled to restore it even though the infant has sold the goods or converted them.
2. There is no estoppel against minor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
47. Which one of the following is correct as per Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act 1872?
A contingent contract is a
(a) contract to do something only if some event, collateral to such contract, does not happen
(b) contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract happens
(c) contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does not happen
(d) contract not to do something. If some event, collateral to such contract happens
Ans. (c)
48. Consider the following statements:
1. A written and registered agreement based on natural love and affection between near relatives is enforceable without consideration.
2. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
49. Consider the following statements:
1. A shopkeeper’s catalogue of price is not an offer.
2. An auctioneer’s announcement that specified goods will be sold by auction on a certain day is not an offer to hold the auction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
50. Which one of the following is explicitly stated in Section 2(b) of the Indian Contract Act 1872?
(a) A proposal, when accepted becomes a promise
(b) A proposal, when accepted become a contract
(c) A proposal, when accepted becomes an agreement
(d) A proposal, when accepted becomes assurance
Ans. (a)
51. By threat of suicide. A induced his wife and son to execute a contract.
What is it according to the Indian Contract Act?
(a) An unlawful contract
(b) voidable contract
(c) A void contract
(d) It is not a contract at all
Ans. (a)
52. Directions: The given item consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal.
Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.
Ans (b)
53. Supreme Court of India stuck down Section 303 of I.P.C. as unconstitutional in which one of the following cases
(a) Machhi Singh vs State of Punjab
(b) Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab
(a) Santa Singh vs State of Punjab
(d) Mithu vs State of Punjab
Ans. (d)

law objective type questions

law objective type questions
Legal multiple choice questions
Objecitve Question on Laws and theory

Q.1. According to the theory of ‘social utilitarianism’ as propounded by Ihering:
(a) greatest number of people should get greatest pleasure
(b) the essential body of legal rules is always based upon the social “facts” of law
(c) a balance is to be struck between the competing interests in society
(d) law is a means to social ends
Ans. (d)

Q.2. Who among the following put international law under positive morality along with the Law of honour and the law of fashion?
(a) Austin
(b) Allen
(c) Salmond
(d) Savigny
Ans. (a)

Q.3. In the modern state, the best court of law is:
(a) convention
(b) custom
(c) legislation
(d) precedents
Ans. (c)

Q.4. Who among the following divided the sources of law into formal sources and material sources ?
(a) Allen
(b) Keeton
(c) Gray
(d) Salmond
Ans. (d)

Q.5. The importance of ‘custom’ over other sources of law was stressed by the jurists of the:
(a) analytical school
(b) historical school
(c) natural law school
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)

Q.6.According to the jurists of Analytical School:
(a) custom becomes law after its recognition by the sovereign
(b) custom never becomes law
(c) custom is a law from the very inception of it
(d) customs are only positive morality even after recognition
Ans. (a)

Q.7. According to the ‘declaratory theory’ of jurisprudence the judges only declare the law and they do not make any law. The supporters of this theory were
(a) Bacon and Dicey
(b) Gray and Salmond
(c) Coke and Blackstone
(d) Duguit and Pound
Ans. (c)

Q.8. Consider the following statements;
1. The object of legislation is to apply law
2. Legislation has both creative and abrogative powers
3. Custom is generally based on the will of the people
Of the above statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans. (a)

Q.9. The statement “Precedents are the past decisions which are used as guide in the moulding of future decisions”, is attributed to:
(a) Dias
(b) Gray
(c) Keeton
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)

Q.10. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Precedent: Legislature
(b) Precedent: Jurist
(c) Precedent : Judge
(d) Precedent : Agreement
Ans. (c)

Q.11. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Antecedent : Remedial right
(b) Rights in rem : Rights in realiena
(c) Proprietary : Contingent rights
(d) Positive : Imperfect rights
Ans. (b)

Q.12. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) An antecedent right is a remedial right
(b) A perfect right does not prescribe any remedy
(c) A positive right indicates a negative duty
(d) Proprietary rights are valuable rights
Ans. (d)

Q.13. Which one of the following is a legal person?
(a) Supreme Court of India
(b) Damodar Valley Corporation
(c) Chief Minister of a State
(d) Governor of a State
Ans. (b)

Q.14.Assertion (A) : The most important power of an owner is the right to exclude other.
Reason (R): The owner may grant to another many of his rights and yet remain owner.
Ans. (b)

Q.15. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Ownership has nothing to do with possession
(b) Ownership and the right of possession are inseparable
(c) Ownership does not involve any right of enjoyment
(d) Ownership has nothing to do with the right of disposition
Ans. (b)

Q.16. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) The transfer of possession is more technical than the transfer of ownership
(b) The right of possession is superior to that of ownership
(c) The right of possession involves the-right to own a property
(d) Animus and corpus are necessary for acquisitions of possession.
Ans. (d)

Q.17. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only “Corpus possession” is required for valid possession
(b) Only “Animus domini” is required for valid
(c) Both “Corpus possession is and “Animus domini” are required for valid possession
(d) Neither “Corpus possession is”. nor “Animus domini” is required for valid possession
Ans. (d)


Q.18. Assertion (A): Duties may It classified into primary and secondary duties.
Reason (R): Duties are subject to classification.
Ans. (c)

Q.19. Assertion (A): Precedent is not considered as a source of law by the Supreme Court of India.
Reason (R): In Bengal Immunity case the Supreme court overruled its earlier decision.
Ans. (d)

Q.20. A right which has a co-relative duty can be legally enforced is called :
(a) an antecedent right
(b) a remedial right
(c) a perfect right
(d) an imperfect right
Ans. (c)

Q.21. Which one of the following is the correlative of immunity?
(a) No –right
(b) Duty
(c) Disability
(d) Subjection
Ans. (c)

Q.22. An INCORRECT example of corporation aggregate is the:
(a) President of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) University of Delhi
(d) Municipal Corporation of Jaipur
Ans. (a)

Q.23. An idol of Lord Krishna in a temple is:
(a) a natural person
(b) a legal person
(c) not a person in the eye of law because only the priest of the temple will be a person
(d) not a person because no personality can be conferred on God.
Ans. (b)

Q.24. Ownership is “a right indefinite in point of user unrestricted in point if disposition-and unlimited in point of duration over a determinate thing”.
This definition of ownership has been given by:
(a) Salmond
(b) Allen
(c) Paton
(d) Austin
Ans. (d)

Q.25. One of the important elements in the concept of possession is ‘possessions’ which means:
(a) direct constant with the object
(b) effective control of the object
(c) an intention of hold the object as owner
(d) an intention on the part of the possessor to exclude any interference by others
Ans. (b)

Q.26. Consider the following statements:
1. Precedents are created by the judges
2. A precedent is not binding if it is inconsistent with a state
3. Precedents can sometimes be created by legislation
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans (a)

Q.27. Assertion (A): Laws are valid only if they are just.
Reason (R): The aim of law is to secure justice.
Ans. (d)

Q.28. Consider the following statements with regard to Natural Law;
1. The central notion of natural law is the existence of objective moral principles
2. These principles are discovered by reference to legal sources as the constitution, codes and so on
3. These principles depend on the essential nature of man
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 ace correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans. (d)

Q.29. Who among the following is considered an exponent of utilitarianism ?
(a) Hobbes
(b) Bentham
(c) David Flume
(d) Grotius
Ans. (b)

Q.30. Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of “Social engineering” which means:
(a) greatest happiness to greatest number of people
(b) balancing of competing interests in society
(c) changes in the concepts and function of the state
(d) that law has its source in the general consciousness
Ans. (b)

Q.31. Consider the following statements:
1. Law developed in its primitive stages uniformly in all societies
II. Development of all societies was uniform. Of these statements:
(a) Both I and II are false
(b) I is false but II is true
(c) I is true but II is false
(d) Both I and II are true
Ans. (c)

Q.32. Savigny’s view of the law was first presented in the famous pamphlet “Of the Vocation of our Age for Legislation and Jurisprudence”.
This pamphlet was :
(a) a reaction against natural law theory
(b) a reaction against the analytical theory of John Austin
(c) a reaction to the proposals made by Professor A.F.J. Thibaut for the codification of the laws and customs of the German States on the basis of Roman Law and Napoleonic code
(d) a suggestion for the codification of the laws and customs of the German States on the basis of Roman law as Roman law had become the Germanic Volksgeist
Ans. (c)

Q. 33. In order that a local custom may be valid and operative as a source of law, which of the following requirements besides antiquity are to be satisfied?
1. Reasonableness
2. Conformity with statue
3. Observance as a matter of moral right
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. (d)

Q.34. ‘Positive law’ is called positive because it is:
(a) made as a result of divine providence
(b) made as a result of collective effort
(c) made by a person in authority
(d) followed by everybody
Ans. (c)

Q.35. In the statement “Every right involves a relationship between two or more ‘X’ persons and only they can be bound by duties or be the holders of legal rights,” ‘X’ stands for:
(a) insane
(c) human
(b) sane
(d) legal
Ans. (b)


Q.36. Assertion (A): Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of people.
Ans. (b)

Q.37. Assertion (A): Austin said that, “only the laws set by sovereign to the members of a political society are positive law or law simply and strictly so called.”
Reason (R): In his theme of explaining laws, Austin attached importance to the element of sanction.
Ans. (a)

Q.38. Assertion (A): Precedent is like gold in a mine.
Reason (R): It has to be searched in law reports.
Ans. (a)

Q.39. If the jural co-relative of “Right” is “Duty”, then the co-relative of “Liberty” is:
(a) power
(b) disability
(c) liability
(d) no claim
Ans. (d)

Q.40. Right in re aliena means a right over:
(a) his own property
(b) a property of someone else
(c) a property situated in a foreign country
(d) a property situated in one’s own country
Ans. (b)

Q.41. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of “absolute duties”?
1. Duties owed to persons indefinitely
2. Self regarding duties
3. Duties owed to the sovereign
4. Duties owed to the parents
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

Q.42. Which of the following combination (s) is/are correct?
Theory of corporate personality Profounder of Theory
1. Realist : Gierke
2. Symbolist : Savigny
3. Fiction : Ihering
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 alone
Ans. (d)

Q.43. In State Trading Corporation of India Vs Commercial Tax Officer, the Supreme Court observed that a company registered under the Companies Act:
(a) is like a citizen of India and can avail itself of all rights available to citizens of India.
(b) is a legal person and equivalent to a citizen as well
(c) is a legal person but is cannot avail itself of fundamental rights under the constitution available to citizen only
(d) can neither claim legal personality nor right of a citizen
Ans. (c)

Q.44. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Ownership can be legal and vested ownership
2. Ownership can be legal and equitable ownership
3. Ownership can be trust and beneficial ownership
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

Q.45. Ownership to patents, copyright, and trademarks and the right to an easement is called:
(a) incorporeal ownership
(b) corporeal ownership
(c) equitable ownership
(d) contingent ownership
Ans. (a)

UPSC Civil Service Practice questions International law

UPSC Civil Service Practice questions International law
UPSC Exam, Civil Services Exam Preparation :Law
upsc civil services solved law questions on International law

Q.1. Assertion (A) Supporters of realist theories argue that the real importance of international law lies in the validity of its claim to be law.
Reason (R): That it is accepted as a major influence on international politics is enough to justify the existence of International Law.
Ans. (a)

Q.2. Assertion (A): Article 6 of the U.N Charter provides that a member of the U.N. which had persistently violated the principles contained in the present charter may be expelled from the UNO by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
Reason (R): Since expulsion of a member is a substantial question under the Charter, a decision on it will, require nine affirmative votes of the Security Council including those of the permanent members and a decision by the General Assembly with, two-thirds majority.
Ans. (a)

Q.3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) St. Thomas Aquins : Natural law
(b) Kelsen : Monism
(c) Austin : Positivism
(d) Grotius : Sovereignty of State
Ans. (d)

Q.4. Consider the following statements:
1. International law is positive morality
2. The consensual theory describes accurately the reality of law.
3. International law lacks many of the institutions present under the national law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans (d)

Q.5. Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List -II
(Books) (Authors)
A. De juri belli ac pacis 1. Bentham
B. The law of Nations 2. Austin
C. The introduction to the Principles of Morals and Legislation 3. Grotius
D. The Province of Jurisprudence Determined 4. Brierly
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (c)

Q.6. Consider the following statements:
Where customary law and treaty law stipulate the
same Or similar legal obligations
1 State party to the treaty is bound by treaty law alone.
2. State party to the treaty is bound by both custom and treaty laws
3. non-parties are bound by treaty law
4. supers powers can disregard both custom and treaty laws
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
Ans. (d)

Q.7. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The concept of jus cogens is understood and applied in the sense that it is a:
(a) preemptory norm of International Law to be developed at a future time
(b) preemptory norm from which no derogation is permitted and which can be modified by a subsequent norm of general international law having the same character
(c) long established rule of international law which cannot he violated
(d) rule development by the consent of signatory of treaties to set aside the rules laid down in the treaty
Ans. (b)

Q.8. Match List-I (Cases) with List-II (Concepts Laid Down) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Cases) (Concepts Laid Down)
A. Corfu Channel Case 1. Concept of limited liability
B. Danube Dam Case 2. Exclusion of circumstantial evidence
C. South West Africa Case 3.Concept of compensation for proven injury
D. Barcelona Traction Case 4. Concept of trusts
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (c)

Q.9. Which one of the following statements is correct?
In view of the two world courts, the decisions of municipal courts:
(a) constitute as customary source of International Law
(b) constitute as subsidiary means of International Law
(c) are useful only for reference between particular States
(d) are not useful at all
Ans. (a)

Q.10. “Private rights acquired under existing law do not cease on change of sovereignty” was held in:
(a) Chorozow Factory Case
(b) German Settlers in Poland case
(c) Mavrommatis Palestine Concession case
(d) Robert E. Brown Case
Ans. (b)

Q.11. In Adams v. Adams case, a U.K. Court was required to recognize a divorce granted in Southern Rhodesia. At that time the U.K. had not recognized that country as a sovereign State. The Court:
(a) recognized the divorce decree by applying the principle of private International Law
(b) recognized the divorce decree by applying the doctrine of acts of a delegated sovereign
(c) refused to recognize the divorce decree by relying on the executive certificate
(d) refused to recognize the divorce decree by applying the doctrine of retroactivity
Ans. (d)

Q.12. Consider the following statements
1. General Assembly resolutions arc of no legal significance
2. General Assembly resolutions are legally binding on members in procedural matters
3. General Assembly resolutions are legally binding on members in procedural matters
4. General Assembly resolutions are recommendatory
in character
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 2, 3 and 4
(b) l, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)

Q.13. Which one of the following Articles of the United Nations Charter authorizes the General Assembly to establish subsidiary organs for its performance?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22
Ans. (d)

Q.14. Select the correct sequence in which the given principles have been set forth in the Article 2 of the UN Charter?
(a) Peaceful settlements of disputes—Fulfillment in good faith of obligations contained in the Charter—Sovereign equality of States -Prohibition on use of force
(b) Sovereign equality of States—Prohibition on use of force-Peaceful settlements of disputes—Fulfillment in good faith of obligations contained the Charter
(c) Peaceful settlements of disputes—Prohibition on use of force—Sovereign equality of States—Fulfillment in good faith of obligations contained in the Charter
(d) Sovereign equality of States—Fulfillment in faith of obligations contained in
Charter—Peaceful settlements disputes—Prohibition on use of force
Ans. (d)

Q.15. Consider the following statements
1. In the International Court of Justice, any two or more of the 15 members can be nationals from the same State
2. A person who for the purposes of membership in the International Court of Justice could be regarded as a national of more than one State shall be deemed to be a national of the one in which he ordinarily exercises civil and political rights
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

Q.16. The appointments of the judges of the International Court of Justice are made with due regard to ensuring that the judges elected would represent:
(a) All the members of the United Nations
(b) The main civilizations and the principal legal systems of the would
(c) All parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice
(d) Those States which have accepted the compulsory jurisdiction of the Court
Ans. (b)

Q.17. Which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 imposes Duties towards the community in realizing the free and full development of one’s personality?
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 30
Ans. (c)

Q.18. Match List-I (Articles of the International covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights) with List-II (Rights) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Articles of the International Covenant (Rights)
on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights)
A. Article 9 1. Education
B. Article 13 2. Standard of Living
C. Article 11 3. Social security
D. Article 1 4. Self determination
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (b)

Q.19. Which one of the following statements is correct? A member of the U.N. may be suspended from the exercise of its rights and privileges of membership by the:
(a) General Assembly
(b) Security Council
(c) General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
(d) International Court of Justice
Ans. (c)

Q.20. Article 46 of the U.N. charter provides that the plans for the application of the armed forces shall be made by the Security Council with the assistance of the:
(a) Commission of military staff
(b) Members of the Secretariat
(c) Permanent members of the Security Council
(d) Military Staff Committee
Ans. (a)

Q.21. Which one of the following statement is correct?
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948:
(a) is a common standard of achievement for all people and all nations
(b) is a treaty universally binding on all nations
(c) is a common standard of achievement for those nations only who voted for the Declaration in the General Assembly of the United Nations
(d) provides machinery for implementing the protection of human rights globally
Ans. (c)


Q.22. Which two of the following rights do not find place in the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to adequate food
(c) Right to self-determination
(d) Right to privacy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l and 4
Ans. (c)

Q.23. Which two of the following rights do not find place in the International covenant on Civil and Political Rights?
1. Right to leave any country including his own and to return to his country.
2. Protection against torture and other forms of cruel and inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.
3. Right to move the International Court of Justice.
4. Right to be a member of the UN.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) l and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b)

Q.24. Which one of the following statements does not occur in Article 1 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
(a) All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights
(b) They are endowed with reason and conscience
(c) They should always live together peacefully
(d) They should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood
Ans. (c)

Q.25. Consider the following statements:
1. Jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice is voluntary and obligatory.
2. Jurisdiction of the International Court of justice can be imposed on Member Nations of the UN.
3. General Assembly and Security Council may refer a matter toe International Court of Justice advice.
4. International Court of Justice is court of appeal from Supreme Court of Member Nations.
Which of the two from the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)

Q.26. Assertion (A): The effect of conditional recognition is that failure to fulfill the condition or obligation will annual the recognition.
Reason (R): Recognition may be conditional as some times states are recognized subject to a condition generally and obligation which they under take to fulfill.
Ans. (d)

Q.27. Which one of the following is not included in the UN Charter as an objective of the United Nations?
(a) To protect the sovereignty of the member states
(b) To avoid war as a means for settlements of International disputes
(c) Development of human personality
(d) To ensure respect for international obligations arising from treaties and other forms of International Law.
Ans. (c)

Q.28. Consider the following statement:
The Economic and Social Council of the U.N.:
1. may prepare draft conventions submission to the General Assembly on subjects falling within its competence.
2. may call international conferences on matters falling within it competence.
3. may appoint the members of Human Rights Committee.
4. may make recommendations for promoting respect for and observance of human rights and fundamental freedom.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) l, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)

Q.29. Which one of the following statements is correct? De facto recognition of a foreign government:
(a) is as conclusively binding, while it lasts, as dc/are recognition
(b) is conclusive
(c) is always equal to dc/tire recognition
(d) has no legal effects
Ans. (a)

Q.30. What is an act of withholding of recognition to new territorial titles or territorial changes brought out by use of force or any other act of doubtful character depriving the rightful claimant thereto, commonly called ?
(a) Estrada Doctrine
(b) Stimpsons Doctrine
(c) Calvo Doctrine
(d) Drago Doctrine
Ans. (b)
Q.31. Arrange the following sources of International Law in the preferential sequence in which they are applied by International Court of Justice while deciding such disputes as are submitted to it?
1. General international convention.
2. General principles of law recognized by civilized nations
3. International customs
4. Judicial decisions of international tribunals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans. (c)

Q.32. “Universal respect for, and observance of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedom for all without distinction as to race, sex, language of religion”.
Which one of the following documents contains the above?
(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(b) UN Charter
(c) European Covenant on Human Rights and Fundamental Freedom
(d) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Ans. (a)

Q.33. Which one of the following is not a source of International Law?
(a) Constitutions of sovereign States
(b) Treaties
(c) International conventions
(d) International customs and practices
Ans. (a)




Q.34. Consider the following statements:
1. All natural persons are legal persons.
2. All legal persons are treated as natural persons
3. All business associations are legal persons.
Of the above statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 alone is correct
Ans. (c)

Q.35. Which of the following could be considered to be advantages of legislation over precedent?
1. Abrogative power
2. Foreknowledge
3. Prospective application
4. Systematic arrangement
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l, 2 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (a)

Q.36. The statement ‘equitable ownership of a legal right is different from the ownership of an equitable right” shows that law and equity differ with regard to:
(a) only the existence of rights
(b) only the ownership of rights
(c) both existence and ownership of rights
(d) the existence of a right but not regarding the consistency of a right
Ans. (c)

Q.37. ‘A’ conveys land to ‘B’ for life and thereafter to ‘C’ absolutely.
This is an example of:
(a) sole ownership and co-ownership
(b) trust and beneficial ownership
(c) legal and equitable ownership
(d) fragmentation of ownership in respect of time
Ans. (c)

Q.38. While digging the foundation of a building, the labourers found a bronze statue belonging to the pre-Christian era. The possession of the statue is claimed by the owner of the land. Which one of the following could be an appropriate ground for the claim of the land-owner?
(a) The labourers are employees of the owner-working under his control
(b) The owner has the corpus of the land and has the right indefinite
(c) The owner has the right to exclude all others from control over the statue and has therefore a priority recognized by law
(d) The owner is assumed to have intended to control all that which lies under the piece of land he owns
Ans. (d)

Q.39. Salmon enumerates five characteristics of legal rights.
Four such characteristics are:
(a) Property in respect of which right is claimed
(b) Act of omission required by the right
(c) The legal reason for the existence of the rights
(d) The subject of the corresponding duty
Ans (d)

Q.40. Out of the following jurists whose theory of law has earned the name of ‘ natural law with a variable content’?
(a) St. T. Aquinas
(b) John Locke
(c) R. Stammler
(d) J. Raw
Ans. (c)

Q.41. The Supreme Court of India in A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras decided that the expression ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 of the Constitution means any procedure prescribed by law irrespective of its reasonableness or otherwise.
This decision belongs to the school of:
(a) positivist approach
(b) naturalist approach
(c) historical approach
(d) sociological approach
Ans. (a)

Q.42. Which one of the following statements correctly conveys Fuller’s theory of inner morality of law?
(a) Every piece of law, in order to be valid, must fulfill certain procedural requirements like generality, prospectivity, promulgation, intelligibility and consistency
(b) The contents of every law, in order to be valid must be of a minimum moral standard
(c) The question of morality of every law is a matter for the inner conscience of the legislators and judges have nothing to do with it
(d) The question of morality of law is not for the courts to determine.
Ans. (a)

Q.43. Opinion of jurists is:
(a) general source of law
(b) historical material source of law
(c) legal material source of law
(d) not a source of law
Ans. (b)

Q.44. Which one of the following statements relating to a valid custom is a FALSE statement?
(a) It must have antiquity
(b) It must have been enjoyed peacefully
(c) It must be judicially recognized
(d) It must have certainty and uniformity
Ans. (c)
Q.45. According to Salmond, supreme legislation refers to:
(a) colonial legislation
(b) executive legislation
(c) judicial legislation
(d) law made by the Parliament
Ans. (d)

Q.46. A decision of Privy Council given before 1949 is:
(a) binding on the High Courts unless they have been overruled by the Federal Court or the Supreme Court.
(b) having only persuasive value on the High Courts
(c) binding only when the case was decided by two or more judges
(d) binding only when recognized by Supreme Court.
Ans. (b)

Q.47. ‘A’ owes to ‘B’ rupees five hundred which has become time-barred. B’s claim to rupees five hundred is:
(a) in the nature of an imperfect legal right
(b) in the nature of a perfect legal right
(c) in the nature of only a moral right
(d) no right at all
Ans. (a)

Q.48 . In which one of the following case has the Court applied the doctrine of “lifting the veil” to determine distinct personality of a corporation ?
(a) Salomon v. Salomon and Co. Ltd.
(b) Johnson v. Kennedy
(c) Moors v. Burke
(d) Young v. Hitchens
Ans. (a)

Q.49. Assertion (A): Custom to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R) : Custom represents common consciousness of the people.
Ans. (b)



Q.50. The statement “There is no distinction between public and private law” is attributed to:
(a) Comte
(b) Spencer
(c) Duguit
(d) Ehrlich
Ans. (c)

objective type questions in law :International Law

objective type questions in law :International Law
Multiple choice questions - International Law
law, legal multiple choice questions objective type qestions with answers

1.The phrase, general principles of law recognized by civilized nations’ in Article 38(1) (c) of the Status of International Court of Justice helps the international tribunal to:
(a) incorporate common principles reflecting consensus of nations
(b) incorporate common principles followed by major
(c) incorporate provisions contained in documents of regional organizations
(d) ignore certain practices of some nation as in the process of interpretation
Ans. (a)

Q.2.Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Conditions for recognition of Statehood : Kelsen
(b) Constitutive theory of recognition : Oppenheim
(c) Declaratory theory : Anzilloti
(d) Facultative theory : Podesta Costa
Ans. (c)

Q.3. In which one of the following cases, it was observed that recognition was NOT necessary for a State to acquire international personality?
(a) Tinoco Arbitration
(b) Kutch Arbitration
(c) Palmas Arbitration
(d) Alabama Arbitration
Ans. (a)

Q.4. Which one of the following is not correct ?
State succession involves:
(a) a definite replacement of one State by another
(b) a definite replacement of one State by another in respect of sovereignty over a given territory
(c) Change of governments
(d) One State acting as the delegate or agent of another for legal purpose
Ans. (c)

Q.5. Match List-I (Provision in U.N. Charter) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Provisions U.N. Charter) (Subject)
A. Article 2 (7) 1. Admission of a State into U.N.
B. Article 4 (2) 2. Veto power
C. Article 27(3) 3. Legal disputes to be submitted to ID
D. Article 36(3) 4. Domestic Jurisdiction clause
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans. (b)

Q.6. Which one of the pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Apartheid : Treating all the people as equals
(b) Article 38 of the of Statute of ICJ : Sources of International Law
(c) The number o constituting of ICJ : 20
(d) The seat of International Court of Justice : Paris
Ans. (b)

Q.7. Which one of the following expressions is not appropriate when we deal with the responsibilities of the Security Council under Chapter V of the United Nations Charter?
(a) Investigative action
(b) Preventive action
(c) Enforcement action International
(d) Administrative action
Ans. (d)

Q.8. The committee on the elimination of all forms of discrimination against women:
(a) the committee on the elimination, of all forms of discrimination against women
(b) after examining the reports from the State parties may make suggestions and general recommendation to the Secretary general of U.N.
(c) may comment upon violation of the convention by a State party
Ans. (c)

Q.9.The International Court of Justice consists
(a) the President and 15 other members
(b) the President, the Vice-president and 15 other members
(c) the President the Vice-President and 14 other members
(d) the President, the Vice-President and members
Ans. (d)

Q.10. Which one of the ‘following is empowered to set up Commissions for the promotion of human rights under the U.N. Charter?
(a) The Economic and Social Council
(b) J General Assembly
(c) The Trusteeship Council
(d) The Secretary General
Ans. (b)

Q.11. International Bill of Rights is said to consist of:
(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(b) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(c) International Covenant n Civil and Political Rights
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)

Q.12. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights declares that all human beings are
(a) by nature equally free and independent
(b) born free and rational
(c) born free and equal in work and rights
(d) born free and equal in dignity and rights
Ans. (d)

Q.13. Article 13 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, empowers a State to expel an alien:
(a) whenever it desires to do so
(b) in pursuance of a decision taken by it
(c) without assigning any reasons
(d) without extending an opportunity to submit a petition to review the decision
Ans. (b)

Q.14. Article 6, first paragraph of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights declares:
(a) every one has the right to life, liberty and security of person
(b) every human beings has the inherent right to life and liberty
(c) every human being has the inherent right to life
(d) every one has the inalienable right to Life
Ans. (c)

Q.15. Which one of the following States has not ratified international Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, till now?
(a) France
(b) United States of America
(c) Japan
(d) Australia
Ans. (b)

Q.16. Assertion (A): Recognition produces legal consequences affecting the, rights. .. powers and privileges of recognized State Government.
Reason (R): Recognition of a, new State or Government has retroactive operation.
Ans. (a)

Q.17. Assertion (A): Declaratory theory of recognition maintains that recognition is merely an acceptance by State of an already existing situation.
Reason (R): New States are established in the international community as full-fledged subject of International Law by virtue of the permission granted by the already exiting States.
Ans. (c)

Q.18. Assertion (A): The maintenance of International peace and security is the primary responsibility oldie Security Council.
Reason (R): The Security Council cannot effectively ensure peace and security because the member States on their own.
Ans. (c)

Q.19. Assertion (A): The decision of International Court of Justice has no binding force except between the parties and in respect of that particular case.
Reason (R): Under its statute the ICJ has been given power to decide a case ex acquo el bono if it thinks proper and desirable to do.
Ans. (a)

Q.20. Assertion (A): Since the adoption of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights in 1948, there is significant change in its basic political concept of guaranteeing the fundamental freedoms of the individual against the ‘Acts of State’.
Reason (R): Majority of Nation-States attained independence and the change in the attitude of man has led to such a change.
Ans. (a)

Q.21. Assertion (A): Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, is an autonomous and independent body.
Reason (R): The members of Economic and Social and Cultural Committee are elected by Economic and Social Council.
Ans. (d)


Q.22. Match List-I (Statement) with List-II (Author) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Statement) (Author)
A. Custom is historical material source of law 1. Maine
B. Custom is not sole source of law 2. Austin
C. Custom is to society what law is to State 3. Black stone
D. Common law is unenacted law 4. Gray
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)

Q.23. Which one out of the following pairs is not properly matched?
(a) Analytical school - Bentham
(b) Historical school - Henry Maine
(c) Sociological school - Grotius
(d) Philosophical school - Fichte
Ans. (c)

Q.24. Consider the following statements:
The Universal Declaration of Human Right 1948 contains:
1. Civil and Political Rights
2. Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
3. Rights of the Groups
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans. (a)

Q.25. Under the ICCPR, periodic reports on the measures adopted by States giving effect to the rights under the Covenant, and the progress made, have to be submitted, to the:
(a) Human Rights Committee
(b) Human Rights Commission
(c) ECOSOC
(d) U.N. General Assembly
Ans. (a)

Q.26. Which of the following pairs of Human Rights and corresponding provisions of International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights is not correctly matched?
A. People’s right to 1. Article I
B. inherent right to life 2. Article 6
C. Right not to be subjected to arbitrary 3. Article 9
D. Right not to be subjected to torture, 4. Article 14 cruel, inhuman or degrading
Treatment
Ans. (d)

Q.27. Consider the following rights stated in the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Right:
1. Right to work
2. Right to education
3. Right to take part in cultural life and to enjoy the benefits of scientific progress
4. Right to form trade unions
The correct order in which these find place in the Covenant is:
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 3, 2, 4, 3
Ans. (c)

Q.28. Assertion (A): The International Court of Justice has jurisdiction over the areas common to the litigant’s declarations.
Reason (R): This is the effects of the Principle of reciprocity
Ans. (c)

Q.29. Assertion (A): States have to make declarations before they can really on Article 36 (2) of the International Court of Justice Statute.
Reason (R): The optional system of jurisdiction only operates between the participants inter se.
Ans. (a)

Q.30. Assertion (A): The International Court of Justice will not give an advisory opinion on issues having political significance.
Reason (R): The Court is not concerned with the motives of a request.
Ans. (a)

Q.31. Assertion (A): The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is an important instrument on human rights.
Reason (R): Not being a treaty, the declaration ‘is not legally binding on States.
Ans. (c)

Q.32. Assertion (A): States which are party to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights are now bound to take all necessary measures to abolish death penalty within their jurisdiction.
Reason (R): The Second Optional Protocol to the International Government on Civil- and Political Rights abolishing death penalty came into force on July
Ans. (a)

Q.33. Assertion (A): The jurisdiction and scope of International Law are different from Municipal Law. Reason (R): International Law protects the rights of the State and individuals all over the globe and strives to build ‘one world’.
Ans (a)

Q.34. The United Nations Commission on Human Rights was established by the
(a) General Assembly
(b) Economic and Social Council
(c) Security Council
(d) Secretariat
Ans. (b)

Q.35. Consider the following Articles of the Charter of the United Nations:
1. Promotion of Universal Respect of Human Rights.
2. Promotion and Encouragement of Respect for Human Rights and Fundamental Freedom.
3. The General Assembly initiates studies relating to
Human Rights.
4. All members co-operate with the organizations.
The correct sequence of these Articles in increasing order of their Article Number in the Charter is:
(a) 2, 3, l, 4
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 2, l, 3, 4
(d) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans. (b)

Q.36. According to the Italian Jurist Anzilloti, a positivist, the binding force of International Law is founded on the supreme principle of:
(a) jus cogens
(b) rebus sic stantibus
(c) Pacta sum Servanda
(d) quid pro quo
Ans. (c)

Q.37. Which one of the following is the definition of International Law given by Brierly?
(a) International Law consists of certain rules of conduct which modern civilized States regard as binding on them in their relations with one another.
(b) The Law of Nations or International Law maybe defined as the body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilized States in their relations with one another
(c) By the Law of Nations or International Law, should be understood the sum of rules of conduct by various nations in their relations with one another
(d) International Law or the law of Nations is the name of a body of rules which according to the usual definition regulate the conduct of the States in their intercourse with one another
Ans. (b)

Q.38. Consider the following statements:
Prof. Oppenheim’ definition of International Law as the name for the body of customary and conventional rules which are considered legally binding by civilized States in their intercourse with each other’ (1905) suffered from vices of:
1. not recognizing the sovereignty of States
2. insistence of inclusion of ‘Civilized’ States only
3. non-inclusion of individuals and other persons as subject
4. non-recognition of other sources of International Law
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

Q.39. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Temple of Preah Vihar case : Acquiescence
B. Fisheries Jurisdiction Case : Principle of res Case judicata
C. The western Sahara Case : ex. acquo et bono
D. The Frontier Dispute Case : Prohibition of the use of armed force
Ans. (d)

Q.40. Consider the following statements in relation to U.N. General Assembly resolutions:
1. Resolutions dealing with substantive questions of International Law are binding
2. Resolutions concerned with the internal working of the United Nations are binding
3. Resolutions may be declaratory of existing customary International Law
4. Unanimous resolutions of General Assembly constitute a direct source of International Law.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (c)

Q.41. The following are recognized as sources of International Law under Article 38 of the Statue of International Courts of Justice:
1. International Conventions
2. International Committee
3. Decision by municipal courts
4. Teachings of highly qualified jurists
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) l and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) l, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

Q.42. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for the recognition of belligerents?
(a) Armed conflict should be of general character
(b) Belligerents occupy and administer a portion of national territory
(c) The belligerent authority should be an absolute sovereign
(d) Belligerents have the capacity and will so undertake international obligations
Ans. (d)

Q.43. A company registered in the Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus, a State not recognized by the IJK. sought to intervene in the Judicial proceedings in the UK.
The UK Court shall allow the company to do so by applying the doctrine of:
(a) de facto control recognized by the British Foreign office
(b) delegated sovereignty recognized under a British statute
(c) mitigation of consequences of non-recognition for in individuals recognized under a British stature
(d) ‘settled legal system’ recognized tinder a British statute
Ans. (a)

Q.44. Consider the following statements
A Successor State is bound by:
1. treaties of alliance
2. treaties of commerce and trade
3. boundary treaties
4. treaties concerning territorial matters
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) l and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (c)

Q.45. Which of the’ following rights and duties do not continue to apply in State succession?
(a) Local rights and duties
(b) Fiscal property debts
(c) Succession to property in foreign States
(d) Political rights and duties
Ans. (d)

Q.46. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. Admission of new states into United Nations : By General Assembly the
recommendation of Security council
B. Expulsion of member States from United Nations : By General Assembly the
recommendation of Security council
C. Election of Judges of International Court of Justice : By General Assembly and
Security Council
D. Appointment of the Secretary General of the United : By Security Council
Nations
Ans. (d)

Q.47. The power of deliberation by the General Assembly of any matter with in the Charter of the General Assembly of the United Nations is
(a) unlimited under all circumstances
(b) dependent on consent by the State concerned
(c) restricted when the Security Council is already considering the same matter
(d) dependent on the nature of the matter
Ans. (c)

Q.48, The Primary responsibility to establish international peace and security rests with the
(a) General Assembly (b) Security Council
(c) Economic and Social Council
(d) Trusteeship Council
Ans. (b)

Q.49. Consider the following resolutions:
1. Uniting for Peace Resolution
2. Resolution on Enhancing the Effectiveness of the Prohibition of the Use of force
3. Definition of Aggression
4. Resolution of Permanent Sovereignty over Natural Resources
The correct chronological order in which these resolutions were adopted by the U.N. General Assembly is:
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(c)1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans. (a)



Q.50. Assertion (A): The International Court of Justice in case of the Aerial Incident of August 10, 1999 decided that it did not have jurisdiction to adjudicate the case brought by Pakistan against India.
Reason (R): One of the reservations in India’s declaration of acceptance of compulsory jurisdiction of the Court indicated that it would consider disputes with any State which is a member of the common wealth of Nations as excluded from the Court’s jurisdiction and Pakistan is a member of Common-wealth
Ans. (a)

international law mcq quiz

international law mcq quiz
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Multiple Choice Quiz international law


Q.1. The Rann of Kachchh dispute was settled by:
(a) The International Council
(b) The Security Council
(c) Mediation by the Soviet Union
(d) International Arbitration
Ans. (d)

Q.2. Articles 94 of the United Nations charter provides that:
(a) the International Court of Justice is empowered to implement its decisions
(b) if any party to a case fails to perform its obligations under the judgment, the Security Council is. empowered to implement the judgment of the court provided the matter is referred to it by ICJ
(c) if any party to a case fails to perform its obligations under the judgment, the other party may have recourse to the Security Council, which may decide upon measures to be taken to give effect to the judgment
(d) if any party to a case fails to perform its obligations under the judgment of the ICJ, the Security Council may decide upon measures to be taken to give effect to the judgment, on the recommendation of the General Assembly
Ans. (c)

Q.3. Assertion (A) : The International Court of Justice does not have any compulsory jurisdiction over all international disputes between states.
Reason (R): States enjoy sovereignty in international relations. -
Ans. (d)


Q.4. Assertion (A): The U.N. General Assembly has power to authorize U.N. peace-keeping operations. Reason (R): The General Assembly represents the entire membership of the United Nations.
Ans. (b)

Q.5. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Customary rules of International Law are diminishing and are being replaced by law making treaties and conventions
(b) States do not deny the existence of International Law. On the contrary, they interpret International Law making so as to justify their conduct.
(c) A great limitation of International Law is that it can not intervene in matters which are with in the domestic jurisdiction of states
(d) International Law is positive morality of state having no force
Ans. (d)

Q.6. Some efforts have been made to transform the status of individual from the object to the subject of International Law. The first effort towards this was made after the
(a) Treaty of Westphalia
(b) 1815 Vienna Conference
(c) First World War
(d) Second World War
Ans. (d)

Q.7. The permanent Court of International Justice applied the principle of res judicata while deciding:
(a) Serbian loans case
(b) Mavrommatis Palestine concessions case
(c) Chozow factory indemnity case
(d) South-West Africa case
Ans. (c)

Q.8. fits Cogens denotes:
(a) superiority of states
(b) dominance of USA over other states
(c) peremptory norms of International Law
(d) superiority of United Nations
Ans. (c)

Q.9. ‘Monism’ denotes that International Law and State Law:
(a) represent two entirely distinct legal system
(b) are concomitant aspects of the one system
(c) are not enforceable
(d) are not binding
Ans. (b)

Q.10. Which one of the following propositions would be correct according to the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1960?
(a) The reservation and the objection cancel each other and all the provisions of the treaty will apply to all parties
(b) The provisions of the treaty to which the reservation applies, shall not apply between the reserving state and the objecting state, unless the objecting state specifically objects to the entry into force of the treaty as between the two states
(c) The reservation and the objection prevent the treaty from coming into force in respect of all of its parties
(d) The objection invalidates the reservation, and the reserving state ceases to be a party to the treaty.
Ans. (b)

Q.11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) A state has duty to become a party to every multilateral treaty
(b) A state has a right to decide whether or not to become a party to a multilateral treaty and if it decides to become a party has a right to make
reservation to limit its participation in any way it chooses
(c) A state has a right to decide whether or not become a party to multilateral treaty and if ii decides to become a party, it should accept the whole treaty
(d) A state has a right to decide whether or not to become a party to multilateral treaty. and if it decides to become a party, it may do so with or without reservations, provided that its reservations are compatible with the objects and purposes of the
Ans. (d)

Q.12. The main difference between de jure and c/c facto recognition is that the former is:
(a) legal while the latter is factual
(b) provisional and the latter is definite
(c) informal while the latter is formal
(d) explicit and the latter is implicit
Ans. (a)

Q.13. “Succession of Government” means change of:
(a) external sovereignty
(b) internal sovereignty through constitutional revolutionary processes
(c) Prime Minister
(d) the Administrative System
Arts. (b)

Q.14. The International Court of Justice in the Right of Passage over India Territory Case 1960, dealt with the:
(a) principle of succession to delictual liabilities
(b) customary right relating to territory
(c) succession and public debts
(d) succession to non-fiscal contractual rights
Ans. (5)

Q.15. The Secretary General of the U.N. is appointed
(a) by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
(b) by the Security Council on the recommendation of the General Assembly
(c) in a joint session of the Security Council and General Assembly
(d) by the permanent members of the Security Council
Ans. (a)

Q.16. The law-making resolutions of the U.N. General Assembly are binding on member states of the United Nations, because:
(a) the General Assembly resolutions are recommendatory in nature
(b) they have a binding effect. If adopted by consensus
(c) member states which vote in favor of a resolution are bound by it
(d) the legal value of these resolutions very in the light of their subject matter and surrounding circumstances
Ans. (b)

Q.17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the Lists:
List-I List -II
A. Reparation for Injuries case 1. Prohibition of use of force and the right of
collective self-defense
B. Nattebohm case 2. Reservation to treatise
C. Genocide Convention case 3. Legal Personality of the U.N.O.
D. Nicaragua case 4. Issue of nationality of the claimant
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (c)

Q.18. Which one of the following organs of the U.N. has the power to initiate studies and make recommendations for the purpose of encouraging the progressive development of International Law and its codification?
(a) The Security Council.
(b) The Economic and Social Council
(c) The Genera! Assembly
(d) The Secretariat
Ans. (c)

Q.19. In spite of the fact that veto is inconsistent with the principle of sovereign’s equality of all members, veto is vested with permanent member of U.N for
(a) striking a balance between superpowers
(b) maintaining international peace and security
(c) political reasons
(d) obstructing the powers of non-permanent members of the Security Council
Ans. (b)

Q.20. Which one of the following is NOT the function of the Economic and Social Council?
(a) Promotion of economic and social development
(b) Promotion of better standards of human welfare
(c) Supervision and control of the functions of specialized agencies
(d) Observance of human rights and fundamental
Ans. (c)

Q.21. Which one of the following organs of the United Nations performance legislative function?
(a) The Security Council
(b) The General Assembly
(c) The Economic and Social Council
(d) The Trusteeship Council
Ans. (b)
Q.22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below Lists:
List-I List-II
A. The international Court of Justice 1. Rome
B. The United Nations 2. Vienna
C. Food and Agricultural Organization 3. New York
D. International Atomic Energy Agency 4. The Hague
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (d)

Q.23. In which one of the following cases did the international Court of Justice upheld the legitimacy of the ‘baselines method’ for delimiting the territorial sea in certain coastal waters?
(a) North sea Continental shelf case
(b) Lotus case
(c) Alabama claims case
(d) Fisheries case
Ans. (d)

Q.24. Article 38(1) of the statue of the International Court of Justice uphold the legitimacy of the ‘baselines method’ for delimiting the territorial sea in certain coastal waters?
(1) Treaties and convention
(2) International custom
(3) General Principals of Law
(4) Judicial decisions and writing of publicists.
This is because of Article 38(1):
(a) follows a hierarchical, giving greatest importance to treaties and conventions
(b) gives equal importance to all the four sources of International Law enumerated therein
(c) does not make any judgment upon the priority of equity of status of these sources
(d) is based on a formal approach to the International Law making processes
Ans. (a)

Q.25. The Judge of the International Court of Justice are elected by:
(a) the General Assembly
(b) the Security Council
(c) both the General Assembly and the Security Council independently of one another
(d) the Secretary General
Ans. (c)

Q.26. Assertion (A) : International Law is a weak legal system of jurisprudence.
Reason (R): International Law has no enforcement mechanism.
Ans. (c)

Q.27. Assertion (A): International Law does not recognize a unilateral right of humanitarian intervention by a state against another state which has committed violations of human rights.
Reason (R) : The Principles of sovereign equality non-intervention and prohibitions of. force do not permit unilateral coercive action by a state except in self-defense.
Ans. (a)

Q.28. Assertion (A) : General Assembly resolutions may sometimes have normative value.
Reason (R) : In appropriate cases, the General Assembly resolutions constitute evidence of opinio Juris.
Ans. (a)

Q.29. Which one of the following-domestic laws of a country is illegal under International Law?
(a) A law declaring an act of a citizen illegal, regardless of the place where it is committed
(b) A law declaring a contract between a national and foreigner concluded within the country, illegal
(c) A law declaring illegal a transaction between two foreigners concluded to be performed in their respective countries
(d) Law declaring illegal an act on board a national aircraft or a national vessel
Ans. (c)

Q.30. A diplomat of State A accredited to State B while returning to his national state (State A) upon completion of his diplomatic assignment kills his wife in the toilet of an aircraft in flight. The aircraft is registered in State D. In this case which one of the following states shall have jurisdiction to try the diplomat?
(a) State A
(b) State B
(c) State C
(d) State D
Ans. (a)

Q.31. Where customary International Law is comprised of rules identical to those of treaty law
(a) the treaty law overrides the customary law
(b) the customary law overrides the treaty law
(c) the rules of customary law become jus cogens
(d) both the treaty law and the customary law co-exist
Ans. (a)

Q.32. When two multilateral treaties are in force in respect of the same subject matter, one concluded subsequent to the other, then:
(a) the later treaty shall prevail over the earlier one
(b) since each treaty is based on express consent of states parties to it, continues to exist independently of the other, even for states parties to both the treaties
(c) the provisions of the later treaty shall prevail over those of the earlier treaty, in respect of the same states parties to both the treaties
(d) the validity of the earlier treaty shall be subject to adjudication by the International Court of Justice
Ans. (a)

Q.33.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Namibia case 1. Freedom of navigation through straits
B. Continental shelf case 2. Powers of the General Assembly of the U.N.
C. Temple of Preach Vihear Case 3. Boundary dispute
D. Corfu Channel case 4. For of a rule of L customary law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (d)

Q.34. A newly independent state:
(a) succeeds to a)) treaties which were applied to its territory by the former administering state
(b) has a right not to be bound by earlier treaties
(c) is not bound by any earlier treaties except those determining boundaries
(d) continues to be bound by all multilateral treaties which applied to its territory at the time of its independence
Ans. (c)

Q.35. The U.N. Secretary General is appointed by the:
(a) General Assembly
(b) Security Council
(c) General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council
(d) General Assembly and the Security
Ans. (c)

Q.36. .Which one of the following U.N. Organs can take enforcement action in case of a threat to the peace of breach of peace?
(a) The Secretariat
(b) Economic and Social Council
(c) General Assembly
(d) Security Council
Ans. (d)

Q.37. In the 1996 advisory opinion oil the Legality of the Threat of Use of Nuclear Weapons in Armed Conflict. the International Court of Justice held that the threat or
use of nuclear weapons:
(a). is legal under any circumstances they are resorted to in self-defense
(b) is illegal under any circumstances
(c) is legal if a state resorts to these weapons when it feels that its very survival is at stake, provided that such use of the weapons conforms 10 rules relating to self-defense and international humanitarian law
(d) is legal if resorted to against a state which has persistently committed gross violations of human rights over its citizens
Ans. (b)

Q.38. Consider the following statements:
The right of Self-defense can be invoked by a state when:
1. it is attacked by the armed forces of another state.
2. it has reason to believe than an attack is imminent.
3. a civilian aircraft registered in that state is shot down by another state.
4. it has evidence of the effect that another state aids, recruits, trains and sends terrorists and mercenaries on a significant scale across the border into the territory of the former.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

Q.39. Consider the following statements
The international Court of Justice exercises its contentious jurisdiction
1. if parties to a dispute agree on the basis of a treaty
2. if parties have accepted the court’s jurisdiction under the Optional Clause, Article 36 (2) of the statute.
3. if the U.N. General Assembly requests an advisory opinion of the dispute.
4. whenever the court deems fit. Which of these are correct?
Ans. (c)

Q.40. Which one of the following member-states of U.N. has been expelled under Article-6 or the U.N. Charter?
(a) Rawanda
(b) Somalia
(c) Indonesia
(d) Yugoslavia
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (d)

Q.41. The Latin American concept of uti possidetis juris is related to succession to:
(a) state property
(b) state archives
(c) public debt
(d) former colonial orders
Ans. (a)

Q.42. The machinery for the enforcement of human rights is most effective under the:
(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(b) the two Covenants on Human Rights. 1966
(c) European Convention on 1-luman Rights, 1950
(d) African Charter of Human Rights and People’s Rights, 1981
Ans. (c)

Q.43. Principles of multilateral treaty of Human Rights can be implemented by the Indian Courts even if India has not ratified it
(a) in all circumstances
(b) if the treaty is universally accepted by states
(c) if it lays down international norms which can be used as points of reference to interpret the provisions of the Indian Constitution
(d) if India has participated in the negotiations and the drafting of the treaty and the treaty was adopted by consensus
Ans. (b)

Q.44. Consider the following rights:
1. Right of self-determination
2. Inherent right to life
3. Freedom from torture, curel inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment
4. Right to work and enjoyment of just and favorable conditions of work
Which of these rights have been recognized under the International Covenant civil and Political Rights, 1966?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

Q.45. Consider the following statements
Upon violation of human rights by a state, the victim may petition the:
1. U.N. Human Rights Commissioner.
2. Human Rights Committee.
3. Economic and Social Council
4. U.N Secretary General
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 alone
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) 2 alone
Ans. (b)

Q.46. Consider the following acts:
1. Mass Killings
2. Forcible transfer of children of one group to another
group
3. Causing serious bodily harm to members of a group aimed at the destruction of the group
4. Measures intended to prevent birth of children in a group aimed at the destruction of the group
Which of the above acts can be described as genocide?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

Q.47. In case of reparations For injuries suffered in the service of the United Nations, the International Court of Justice held that United Nations. Organization:
(a) possesses a status equal to a sovereign state
(b) possesses international legal capacity to make an international claim against a sovereign state
(c) possesses the status of a super state
(d) has responsibility under International Law
Ans. (b)


Q.48. Irrespective of its rudimentary character International Law is:
(a) more honored in the breach than in the observance
(b) more honored in the observance than in the breach
(c) no law at all
(d) a code of ethics
Ans. (b)

Q.49. ‘Law of Nations or International Law is the name for the body of customary and treaty rules which are considered legally binding by civilized States in their intercourse with each other.
This definition was given by:
(a) Brierly
(b) Starke
(c) Oppenheim
(d) Hughes
Ans. (c)

Q.50. Pacta sum Servanda means:
1. treaties have to be observed
2. treaties are a source of International Law
3. treaties are law binding
4. treaties have validity in International Law
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(b) 1 alone
(a) 2 alone
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)

International Law Sample Paper for Civil Judge Public Prosecutor Exams

International Law Sample Paper for Civil Judge Public Prosecutor Exams
Sample Questions on International Law for Civil Judge Exam
Law MCQ For Civil Judge Assistant Public Prosecutor
Q.1. The Secretary General of the United Nations is appointed by the:
(a) General Assembly
(b) Security Council
(c) General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
(d) Secretariat
Ans. (c)

Q.2. Decisions on procedural matters in the Security Council are to be made by an affirmative vote of:
(a) eight members
(b) seven members
(c) ten members
(d) nine members
Ans. (d)

Q.3. In order to give validity to official acts of recognized state during the period it was not recognized, a doctrine of retroactivity of recognition has been evolved.
This principle was followed in:
(a) Luther v. Sagor
(b) Trinco Arbitration
(c) Pacquette Hebbana
(d) Haile Selassie v. Cable and Wireless Ltd.
Ans. (a)

Q. 4. Consider the following statements:
The jurisdiction of International Court of Justice. Is compulsory in all cases:
1. referred to the court by the Secretary General.
2. referred to the court by the State parties to the dispute.
3. under the optional clause.
4. where a treaty or convention in force provides for reference to the court.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Ans.(b)

Q.5. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The decision of the International Court of Justice has binding force on all the members of United Nations
(b) The decision of the International Court of Justice has binding force on all States of the World
(c) The decisions of the international Court of Justice shall not have a binding force except upon the parties to a dispute, and only in respect, of a particular dispute between them
(d) The decisions of the International Court of Justice shall not have any binding force on any member as its decision are only subsidiary means for determining rules of International Law
Ans. (c)

Q.6. Assertion (A) Article 2 (4) of the U.N. Charter authorizes the Security Council to constitute UN peace keeping force as an anti-escalative device.
Reason: (R) The principle of non-intervention envisaged by the U.N. Charter is one of the main purposes and principles of the United Nations.
Ans. (d)

Q.7. Assertion (A): International Law is unlike Municipal Law.
Reason (R): There is no world legislature no international police and no International Court with compulsory jurisdiction.
Ans. (a)

Q.8. Assertion (A): Custom is an ineffective means of development of International Law.
Reason (R): Custom is uncertain in content and develops slowly.
Ans. (d)

Q.9. Which of the following functions are performed by the Economic and Social Council?
1. It may make or initiate studies with respect to international economic, social, cultural, and educational, health and related matter.
2. It may make recommendations for the purpose of ‘promoting respect for and observance of human rights.
3. It may make recommendation to promote friendly relations and understanding amongst member states.
4. It may prepare draft conventions for submissions to the General Assembly on any of the subject falling within its competence.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

Q.10. The budget of ICJ approved by:
(a) ICJ
(b) The ICJ or General Assembly
(c) The General Assembly
(d) General Assembly and the ICJ
Ans. (c)

Q.11. Which of the following will settle the issue in the event of a dispute as to whether the international Court of Justice has jurisdiction?
(a) The President of the Court
(b) The Vice President of the Court
(c) Both the President and the Vice President together
(d) The court itself
Ans. (d)

Q.12. “International Law is a part of our law and must be ascertained and administered by courts of justice of appropriate jurisdiction as often as questions of right depending upon it are duly presented for their determination”. This was observed by Justice Gray in:
(a) Queen Vs Keyn case
(b) Paquete Habana case
(c) Corfu channel case
(d) Westrand Central Gold Mining Co Ltd. vs. King Case
Ans. (b)

Q.13. “International Law may be defined as form of rules accepted by civilized States as determining their conduct towards each other and towards each other subjects”.
It was held in:
(a) Westrand Central Gold Mining Co. Ltd. vs. King
(b) S.S. Lotus case
(c) Queen vs. Keyn
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

Q.14. The controversy about the legal sources of International Law was settled when the legal sources were authoritatively laid down for the first time in:
(a) The Hague Convention for the specific settlement of International Disputes
(b) The covenant of the League of nations
(c) The Statue of International Court of Justice
(d) The statue of Permanent of Court of International Justice
Ans. (c)

Q.15. Just cogens means and includes:
(a) customary rules only
(b) general rules of International Law
(c) treaty contracts
(d) preemptory norms of International Law which can not be normally derogated by an state
Ans. (d)

Q.16. Which one of the following international lawyers used of expression “Succession to Rights and Obligation” in place of “State Succession”?
(a) J.L Brierly
(b) L. Oppenheim
(c) Fenwick
(d) J.G Starke
Ans. (b)

Q.17. Which of the following opinions was expressed by the British Court in 1905 in Westrand Central Gold Mining Co. Vs. R in the case of passing of contractual rights and duties to a successor state in state succession?
(a) Successor state has to respect all contractual rights and obligations
(b) Successor state is free to decide as to which of the contractual rights and duties are to be respected
(c) Successor state has to respect contractual rights and duties in the nature of liquidated damages
(d) Successor state has to respect contractual rights and duties in the nature of unliquidated damages
Ans. (b)

Q.18. Which of the following is among the purposes of the United Nations as laid down under Article 1 of the U.N. Charter?
1. To maintain international peace and security
2. To develop friendly relation among nations
3. To ensure that non-members of the United Nations act in accordance with the U.N. Charter
4. To achieve international co-operation in solving international problems of an economic social cultural or humanitarian character
Select the correct answer the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

Q.19. Decisions of the General Assembly on important question shall-be made by:
(a) simple majority
(b) simple majority present and voting.
(c) two-thirds majority
(d) two-thirds majority present and voting
Ans. (d)

Q.20. The voting procedure in the Security Council for admission of a member to the United Nations is by:
(a) a two-thirds majority of -the members present and voting
(b) an affirmative vote of nine members
(c) an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of the permanent members
(d) concurring votes pf all members of the Security Council
Ans. (c)
Q.21. In maintaining international peace and security, the Security Council:
(a) exclusive authority
(b) primary authority
(c) both primary and exclusive authority
(d) collective authority
Ans. (b)

Q.22. Assertion (A): Hugo Grotius is the father of International Law.
Reason (R): Hugo Grotius discussed about Law of Nations in his book.
Ans. ‘(a)

Q.23. Assertion (A): Recognition -De jure cannot be withdrawn.
Reason (R) Recognition De jure is final and irrevocable.
Ans. (a)

Q.24. Assertion (A): The new government is bound by the obligations of the predecessor Government.
Reason (R): A state’s international rights and obligations are not affected by a change of government.
Ans. (a)

Q.25. “The purpose of International Law is to from a frame work within which international relation’s can be conducted and to provide a system of rules facilitating
In accordance with the provision f Article “18 of the charter each member of the General Assembly is entitled to give one vote. Decision on important or substantial matters are taken by the majority of two-third members present and voting

Q.26. “International Law may be defined as the body of law which is composed for its greater part of the principles and rules of conduct which the states feel themselves bound to observe.” International Law is defined as above by:
(a) Charles Cheney Hyde
(b) Oppenheim
(c) Westlake
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)

Q.27. In which of the following cases did the permanent Court of International Justice apply the general principle of res judicata?
(a) The Chorozow factory (Indemnity) case
(b) The Marrommatis Palestine Concessions
(c) Diversion of water from the Meuse Case
(d) Serbian loans case
Ans. (a)

Q.28. “Development of International Law through political organs of the United Nations” has been authored by:
(a) D.P.O. Connell
(b) Ian Brownlle
(c) Max Sorensen
(d) Rosalyn Higgins
Ans. (d)

Q.29. “Which one of the following cases has elucidated.
“Retroactive effect of recognition”?
(a) Duff Development Co. Vs. Kelantan Government
(b) Michell Vs. Sultan of Johore
(c) Civil Air Transport Inc Vs. Central Air Transport Corporation
(d) Rich Vs. Naviera Vacuba and Republic of Cuba
Ans. (c)

Q.30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list:
List- I List-II
A. Torts 1. The German Settlers in Poland
B. Concessionary contract 2. The polish Upper contracts Silesia case (nails)
C. Public property 3. Prem Chibar vs. The Union of India
D. Contractor 4. Robert E. Brown
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (a)

Q.31 Which one of the following sets of articles in the Vienna convention of 1978 contains special provisions relating to the cases where two or more states unite to form one successor state or where a part or parts of the territory of state should separate to form one or more states ?
(a) Articles 10-17
(b) Articles 18-25
(c) Articles 31-38
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)

Q.32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List- I List -II
A. Suspension Members of 1. Article -5
B. Veto power 2. Article -6
C. Appointment of Secretary General 3. Article -76
D. Objectives of the trusteeship System 4. Article 97
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 5
(b) 1 3 4 5
(c) 1 3 5 4
(d) 3 2 5 1
Ans. (c)

Q.33. Which one of the following is NOT the principal power and function of the General Assembly?
(a) The direction and supervision of international economic and social co-operation
(b) The election on members of other organs
(c) Amendments to the charter of the U.N.
(d) The consideration of information as to non-self governing territories
Ans. (d)

Q.34. Which one of the following conventions conferred privileges and immunities on United Nations?
(a) Vienna Convention on Diplomatic privileges and immunities
(b) General Assembly Convention on the privileges and immunities of the United Nations, 1946
(c) Stockholm Convention on privileges and immunities
(d) Geneva Convention on privileges and immunities
Ans. (b)

Q.35. The “Optical Clause” now provides the parties to the Statute may at any time declare that they recognize as compulsory ipso facto and without special agreement.
“In relation to any other State accepting the same obligation”.
The above provision is contained in which one of the following articles of the Statue of International Court of Justice?
(a) Article 37
(b) Article 38
(c) Article 36
(d) Article 35
Ans. (c)

Q.36. “Intervention by a third state in proceedings already instituted the Court (ICJ) may occur in two circumstances”. Which one of the following sets of articles of ICJ statute deals with the same?
(a) Article 60 and 61
(b) Article 62 and 63
(c) Article 49 and 50
(d) Article 30 and 40
Ans. (b)

Q.37. Assertion (A): Article 38 1(C) of the statute of the International Court of Justice recognizes the creative functions of the Court.
Reason (R): It empowers the court to go outside treaties and international custom and confers on it a wide freedom of choice to draw up principles common to various systems of Municipal Law.
Ans. (a)

Q.38. Assertion (A): The Security Council which functions continuously and adopts its own rules of procedure has its seat at Now York.
Reason (R) To suit the convenience, the Security Council meets at many places.
Ans. (c)

Q.39. Assertion (A): The decisions of Municipal Courts are not a direct source of International Law.
Reason (R): They are not binding on other states and do not create rights and obligations under International Law.
Ans. (a)

Q.40. Assertion (A): International Law is impotent to restrain a powerful nation which has no decent respect for the opinion of mankind.
Reason (R): Sanctions behind International Law are not effective because there is not international police force to enforce them.
Ans. (a)

Q.41. Assertion (A): Article 38 (1) of the ICJ statute directs the Court to apply judicial decisions as a subsidiary means for determination of rule of International law.
Reason (R): The decisions of the Court do not create any precedent. They have no binding force except to the parties to a particular case.
Ans. (b)

Q.42. The subjects of International Law are:
(a) states only
(b) only International organizations
(c) states. International organizations and Individual
(d) United Nations
Ans. (c)

Q.43. Which one of the following sources may be regarded as modern source of International law?
(a) International customs, treaties and decisions
(b) General Principles of law recognized by civilized states
(c) Judicial decisions and juristic work of his quality
(d) Decisions of organs of international institutions
Ans. (d)

Q.44. “If State grants recognition to another State in violation of international treaty, that is, the pact of Paris 1928, such recognition would not be valid” this forms the basis of:
(a) Halstein Doctrine
(b) Estrada Doctrine
(c) Stimson Doctrine
(d) Monroe Doctrine
Ans. (c)

Q.45. Admission of State as a member of the United Nations:
(a) does not constitute recognition by other member states of the U.N.
(b) constitutes collective recognition by other states individually
(c) constitutes tie facto recognition by other states individually
(d) constitutes de jure recognition by other states individually
Ans. (b)

Q.46. In the Right of Passage over the Indian Territory case the International Court of Justice decided that:
(a) colonial treaties ceased be valid
(b) customary law right
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were not part of the former Brititish India
(d) resort to force by India in the liberation of God was justified
Ans. (b)

Q.47. Article 4 of the U.N. Charter membership provides that membership of the United Nations is open to peace loving states which:
(a) accept and are able and willing to carry out the obligations of Charter
(b) promote friendly relations among nations through international co-operation
(c) support and provide the right of self-determination to the people in various colonies
(d) undertake to protect human rights of its people as laid down in various U.N. Human Rights instruments
Ans. (a)

Q.48. If there is any threat to International Peace and Security, the Security Council is empowered to take enforcement action under which one of the following chapters of the U.N. Charter:
(a) III
(b) IV
(c) Vl
(d) Vll
Ans. (d)

Q.49. To which one of the following is India not a party?
(a) International convention on economic, social and cultural rights
(b) International convention on civil and political rights
(c) International convention on the elimination of all forms of racial discrimination
(d) International convention against torture and other cruel in human or degrading treatment or punishment
Ans. (d)

Q.50. When the Security Council is exercising respect of any dispute or situation the functions assigned to it in the present charter, the General Assembly:
(a) shall not make any recommendation with regard to that dispute or situation unless the security Council so requests
(b) cannot make any recommendation with regard to that dispute
(c) can make a recommendation with regard to that dispute or situation
(d) can make a recommendation on the advice of the Secretary General.
Ans. (a)