Solved MCQ Quiz on constitution of india
Quiz on Indian Constitution
India PoliticaL GK Solved Question Bank MCQ
Tick the correct choice amongst the following:
1. The gap between the two consecutive sessions of the Parliament can not be more than
(a) four months
(b) five months
(c) Six months
(d) eight months
Ans. (c)
2. The President’s rule in states can continue for
(a) two months
(b) six months
(c) one year
(d) Any length of time
Ans. (c)
3. During the question hour, the question is given to
(a) The Speaker
(b) The Deputy Speaker
(c) The Secretary General of the house
(d) all of the above
Ans. (c)
4. How many members are there in the Estimate Committee of the Lok Sabha? ‘
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
Ans. (c)
5. How many types of emergencies are provided in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 0
Ans. (a)
6. The dead lock over a bill is resolved when
(a) The bill is passed again in the Lok Sabha
(b) The decision of the Lok Sabha is final
(c) The President may call a joint sitting of the two houses to decide the matter
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may call a joint sitting of the houses to decide the matter
Ans. (c)
7. The President has the emergency powers such as
(a) Emergency caused by a war or external aggression
(b) Emergency caused by the break down of constitutional machinery in a state
(c) Financial emergency
(d) All the above powers
Ans. (d)
8. The collective responsibility means
(a) The whole cabinet discusses and formulates the policies of the government
(b) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
(c) The members of the Council of Ministers are individually responsible to the Lok Sabha
(d) All of the above are true
Ans. (d)
9. The three financial powers of the President are
(a) Appoints the finance commissioner
(b) He appoints the planning commissioner
(c) He considers certain financial bills reserved by the state government
(d) He causes the budget to be laid before the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans. (a)
10. The Electoral College that elects the Vice President of India consists of
(a) Members of both the houses of parliament
(b) Members of legislative assembly of all the states
(c) Members of legislative assembly of the union territories
(d) None of the above members
Ans. (a)
11. “The Agency of Machinery through which the state realizes its objective” is
(a) Constitution
(b) Nation
(c) Government
(d) Parliament
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following do not have a unicameral legislature?
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Portugal
(d) Denmark
Ans. (b)
13. Which of the following organs of the government is the custodian of the national purse?
(a) The Judiciary
(b) The Executive
(c) The legislature
(d) All of these
Ans. (b)
14. The House of Lords is the highest court of appeal in
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) S. Africa
(d) Britain
Ans. (d)
15. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Under Article 352, the first proclamation of emergency was made on October 26,
1962
(b) The second proclamation of emergency order Article 352 was issued on December
31, 1971
(c) The third proclamation of emergency was issued on June 25, 1975
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
16. Who had the longest term of Vice-Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(b) Shri G.S. Pathal
(c) Shri B.D. Jatti
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
17. Who had the longest term of Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Zail Singh
(c) Shri V.V. Gin
(d) Shri N.S. Reddy
Ans. (a)
18. The Ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission of India is
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Minister for Planning
Ans. (c)
19. Which one of the following issues ordinances when the Parliament is not in session?
(a) Speaker
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Union Cabinet
Ans. (c)
20. The President nominates twelve members of the Rajya Sabha on the basis of
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies
(b) Their role played in political setup of the country
(c) The recommendation made by the Vice- President
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
Ans. (d)
Showing posts with label POLITICAL SCIENCE. Show all posts
Showing posts with label POLITICAL SCIENCE. Show all posts
Saturday, July 2, 2011
Monday, May 9, 2011
UPSC IAS Prelims previous Questions Political Science
UPSC IAS Prelims previous Questions Political Science
UPSC Civil Services: Political Science Prelims Papers Free Online Practice
Solved Political Science which appeared in past Exams
Q. 1. The distinction between legal and political sovereignty was made by:
(a) John Locke
(b) John Austin
(c) A.V. Dicey
(d) Harold J. Laski
Ans. (c)
Q. 2. Jean Bobin defined sovereignty as “the supreme power over citizens and subjects unrestrained by law.” The implication of the definition according to its author is that:
(a) the sovereign is not bound by positive law but is subject to the Higher Law
(b) the sovereign is not subject to any law including the law of God and nature
(c) the sovereign can alter the fundamental law of the land
(d) the sovereign is legally omni-competent and morally supreme
Ans. (d)
Q. 3. Duguit criticized the Austinian theory of sovereignty in the name of the:
(a) community’s sense of right
(b) principle of social solidarity
(c) moral personality of corporations
(d) theory of natural law
Ans. (b)
Q. 4. Political Pluralism:
(a) rejects the idea of the state
(b) rejects the moral and legal omni competence of the state
(c) rejects the view that law is not the creation of the state but is anterior and superior to it
(d) believes in the complete autonomy of corporate groups and associations
Ans. (d)
Q. 5. In which of the following did pluralists believe?
1. The social, economic, religious and educational association with in the State is more important than the State
2. The State has no absolute claim to the total obedience of the citizens
3. The State coordinates the activities of other association
4. The State as an institution can be dispensed with
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 6. Which of the following statements are correct about the State and associations?
1. The State is the unique type of association
2. The State is a territorial organization while association does not necessarily need territory
3. Associations can exist without the State
4. We must be members of some other association besides the State
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l and 2
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
Q. 7. Match List- I with List -II and select the correct answer:
List-I List-II
A. The State comes into existence for the sake 1. J. S. Mill
of life but it continues to exist for good life
B. The state is the march of God on earth 2. Aristotle
C. The State is a joint stock protection company 3. Karl Marx
for mutual assurance
D. The State is nothing more than a machine for the 4. Herbert Spencer
oppression of one class by another
5. Hegel
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 5 1 3
(b) 1 2 3 5
(c) 2 5 4 3
(d) 5 2 4 3
Ans. (a)
Q. 8. Which of the following is rejected by Hobbes as the foundation of the State?
(a) The view that might is right
(b) Individualism
(c) Rational self-preservation as the ground for social contract
(d) Concept of authorization
Ans. (a)
Q. 9. Pluto is called the father of the idealist theory of the state because:
(a) he prescribed the ideals of city-state
(b) his theory was based not on what human nature is but on what it ought to be
(c) he postulated a dualism between reality and value
(d) he based his theory on the idea of the Good
Ans. (b)
Q. 10. ‘The state is a necessary evil’. This statement refers to the:
(a) anarchist theory of the state
(b) individualist theory of the state
(c) Maxian theory of the state
(d) neo-liberal theory of the state
Ans. (b)
Q. 11. Which of the following statements about Hegel’s theory of state is not correct?
(a) The state, transcends the one-sidedness of both legality and morality expression of social morality
(b) The state is higher than civil society; it lifts it up from its mechanical and mundane level and transposes it to a higher moral and spiritual plane
(c) The state can annul civil society altogether and can do without it
(d) Civil society cannot exist without the state and in a sense is state’s creation
Ans. (c)
Q. 12. “The principle of the greatest good of the greatest number was made a hook to be put into nostrils of the Leviathan so that it could be tamed and harnessed to the chariot of utility.” This observation refers to the political theory of:
(a) Hobbes
(b) Hume
(c) Sidgwick
(d) Bentham
Ans. (a)
Q. 13. Aristotle described the State as natural. By this he meant that:
(a) the state was not created by man but was product of natural forces and facts like air, water, the earth, the sky, climatic conditions, environment and the interaction among all these
(b) the state was created to satisfy man’s natural needs
(c) the state satisfies man’s natural needs are not a proof that it is natural, those needs are but the stirrings in him of that immanent end (telos) that is expressed in the state
(d) Man is by nature a social being and no social life is possible without law and order which can be maintained only by the state
Ans. (d)
Q. 14. “Against intelligence, the growth of knowledge and the progress of science, which the enlightenment believed to be the only hope of civilization, he set amiable and benevolent sentiments, i.e. good will and reverence.” This refers to the thought of: (a) Diderot
(c) Rousseau
(b) Hume
(d) Kant
Ans. (c)
Q. 15. “A thinking man is depraved animal.” This view of man was propounded by:
(a) Hobbes
(c) Herder
(b) Vico
(d) Rousseau
Ans. (d)
Q. 16. Rousseau’s theory of General Will implies that it is:
(a) the sum of particular wills
(b) the aggregate of all the rational wills of individuals comprising a particular political community
(c) the transcendent, universal will may be even of one individual, which aims at the common good of the community
(d) will of the enlightened ruling elite
Ans. (c)
Q. 17. The theory of Social Contract is essentially concerned with:
(a) explaining the historical genesis of the state
(b) explorising the philosophical / theoretical foundations of the state
(c) justifying the status quo
(d) promoting bourgeois order
Ans. (b)
Q. 18. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List –I List-II
A. In the state of nature, the life of man was solitary, 1. J.J. Rousseau
poor, nasty, brutish and short
B. Man is born free but he is everywhere in chains 2. Karl Marx
C. Men being by nature all free, equal and independent, 3. Thomas Hobbes
no one can be put out of this state and subjected to
the political power of another, without his consent
D. The state ought not to 4. John Locke is considered as 4. John Locke
nothing better than partnership agreement in a trade of
paper and coffee—It is a partnership in all arts,
a partnership in every virtue and in all perfection
5. Edmund Burke
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 5
(b) 5 2 4 1
(c) 3 2 5 4
(d) 2 1 3 5
Ans. (a)
Q. 19. It is better to Socrates dissatisfied than a pig satisfied. This observation is:
(a) a reaffirmation of hedonistic utilitarianism
(b) an improvement on hedonism
(c) a repudiation of hedonism
(d) a form of moral intuitionism
Ans. (a)
Q. 20. The philosopher who has transformed classical liberalism into a kind of welfarism in modem times is:
(a) Hayek
(b) Macpherson
(c) Nozick
(d) Rawls
Ans. (b)
Q. 21. One of the criticisms of the theory of Natural Rights is that it:
(a) places societal interests above individual interests
(b) assumes that rights exist prior to society
(c) believes that rights are the creations of the sovereign
(d) puts too much emphasis on social recognition of rights
Ans. (b)
Q. 22. The entitlement theory of property has been propounded by:
(a) John Locke
(b) John Rawls
(c) Hayek
(d) Nozick
Ans. (a)
Q. 23. Who among the following thinkers made a distinction between Real Will and Actual Will?
(a) Rousseau
(b) Green
(c) Bosanquet
(d) Kant
Ans. (a)
Q. 24. Match List- I with List -II and select the correct answer:
List- I List-II
(Rules/relations) (Law of Nature)
A. Rules which govern relations among individuals 1. Domestic Law
B. Principles which govern relations between states 2. Administrative Law
C. Principles which govern the conduct between different 3. International Law
levels of government (such as federal, state, local)
D. Principles which govern the relations between s various 4.Constitutional Law
governmental agencies and between government and citizens
5. Private Law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 5
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 5 3 4 2
Ans. (d)
Q. 25. The theory of justice the man thrust of which is on fairness is known as:
(a) metaphysical theory of justice
(b) political theory of justice
(c) legal theory of justice
(d) retributive theory of justice
Ans. (c)
UPSC Civil Services: Political Science Prelims Papers Free Online Practice
Solved Political Science which appeared in past Exams
Q. 1. The distinction between legal and political sovereignty was made by:
(a) John Locke
(b) John Austin
(c) A.V. Dicey
(d) Harold J. Laski
Ans. (c)
Q. 2. Jean Bobin defined sovereignty as “the supreme power over citizens and subjects unrestrained by law.” The implication of the definition according to its author is that:
(a) the sovereign is not bound by positive law but is subject to the Higher Law
(b) the sovereign is not subject to any law including the law of God and nature
(c) the sovereign can alter the fundamental law of the land
(d) the sovereign is legally omni-competent and morally supreme
Ans. (d)
Q. 3. Duguit criticized the Austinian theory of sovereignty in the name of the:
(a) community’s sense of right
(b) principle of social solidarity
(c) moral personality of corporations
(d) theory of natural law
Ans. (b)
Q. 4. Political Pluralism:
(a) rejects the idea of the state
(b) rejects the moral and legal omni competence of the state
(c) rejects the view that law is not the creation of the state but is anterior and superior to it
(d) believes in the complete autonomy of corporate groups and associations
Ans. (d)
Q. 5. In which of the following did pluralists believe?
1. The social, economic, religious and educational association with in the State is more important than the State
2. The State has no absolute claim to the total obedience of the citizens
3. The State coordinates the activities of other association
4. The State as an institution can be dispensed with
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 6. Which of the following statements are correct about the State and associations?
1. The State is the unique type of association
2. The State is a territorial organization while association does not necessarily need territory
3. Associations can exist without the State
4. We must be members of some other association besides the State
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l and 2
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
Q. 7. Match List- I with List -II and select the correct answer:
List-I List-II
A. The State comes into existence for the sake 1. J. S. Mill
of life but it continues to exist for good life
B. The state is the march of God on earth 2. Aristotle
C. The State is a joint stock protection company 3. Karl Marx
for mutual assurance
D. The State is nothing more than a machine for the 4. Herbert Spencer
oppression of one class by another
5. Hegel
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 5 1 3
(b) 1 2 3 5
(c) 2 5 4 3
(d) 5 2 4 3
Ans. (a)
Q. 8. Which of the following is rejected by Hobbes as the foundation of the State?
(a) The view that might is right
(b) Individualism
(c) Rational self-preservation as the ground for social contract
(d) Concept of authorization
Ans. (a)
Q. 9. Pluto is called the father of the idealist theory of the state because:
(a) he prescribed the ideals of city-state
(b) his theory was based not on what human nature is but on what it ought to be
(c) he postulated a dualism between reality and value
(d) he based his theory on the idea of the Good
Ans. (b)
Q. 10. ‘The state is a necessary evil’. This statement refers to the:
(a) anarchist theory of the state
(b) individualist theory of the state
(c) Maxian theory of the state
(d) neo-liberal theory of the state
Ans. (b)
Q. 11. Which of the following statements about Hegel’s theory of state is not correct?
(a) The state, transcends the one-sidedness of both legality and morality expression of social morality
(b) The state is higher than civil society; it lifts it up from its mechanical and mundane level and transposes it to a higher moral and spiritual plane
(c) The state can annul civil society altogether and can do without it
(d) Civil society cannot exist without the state and in a sense is state’s creation
Ans. (c)
Q. 12. “The principle of the greatest good of the greatest number was made a hook to be put into nostrils of the Leviathan so that it could be tamed and harnessed to the chariot of utility.” This observation refers to the political theory of:
(a) Hobbes
(b) Hume
(c) Sidgwick
(d) Bentham
Ans. (a)
Q. 13. Aristotle described the State as natural. By this he meant that:
(a) the state was not created by man but was product of natural forces and facts like air, water, the earth, the sky, climatic conditions, environment and the interaction among all these
(b) the state was created to satisfy man’s natural needs
(c) the state satisfies man’s natural needs are not a proof that it is natural, those needs are but the stirrings in him of that immanent end (telos) that is expressed in the state
(d) Man is by nature a social being and no social life is possible without law and order which can be maintained only by the state
Ans. (d)
Q. 14. “Against intelligence, the growth of knowledge and the progress of science, which the enlightenment believed to be the only hope of civilization, he set amiable and benevolent sentiments, i.e. good will and reverence.” This refers to the thought of: (a) Diderot
(c) Rousseau
(b) Hume
(d) Kant
Ans. (c)
Q. 15. “A thinking man is depraved animal.” This view of man was propounded by:
(a) Hobbes
(c) Herder
(b) Vico
(d) Rousseau
Ans. (d)
Q. 16. Rousseau’s theory of General Will implies that it is:
(a) the sum of particular wills
(b) the aggregate of all the rational wills of individuals comprising a particular political community
(c) the transcendent, universal will may be even of one individual, which aims at the common good of the community
(d) will of the enlightened ruling elite
Ans. (c)
Q. 17. The theory of Social Contract is essentially concerned with:
(a) explaining the historical genesis of the state
(b) explorising the philosophical / theoretical foundations of the state
(c) justifying the status quo
(d) promoting bourgeois order
Ans. (b)
Q. 18. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List –I List-II
A. In the state of nature, the life of man was solitary, 1. J.J. Rousseau
poor, nasty, brutish and short
B. Man is born free but he is everywhere in chains 2. Karl Marx
C. Men being by nature all free, equal and independent, 3. Thomas Hobbes
no one can be put out of this state and subjected to
the political power of another, without his consent
D. The state ought not to 4. John Locke is considered as 4. John Locke
nothing better than partnership agreement in a trade of
paper and coffee—It is a partnership in all arts,
a partnership in every virtue and in all perfection
5. Edmund Burke
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 5
(b) 5 2 4 1
(c) 3 2 5 4
(d) 2 1 3 5
Ans. (a)
Q. 19. It is better to Socrates dissatisfied than a pig satisfied. This observation is:
(a) a reaffirmation of hedonistic utilitarianism
(b) an improvement on hedonism
(c) a repudiation of hedonism
(d) a form of moral intuitionism
Ans. (a)
Q. 20. The philosopher who has transformed classical liberalism into a kind of welfarism in modem times is:
(a) Hayek
(b) Macpherson
(c) Nozick
(d) Rawls
Ans. (b)
Q. 21. One of the criticisms of the theory of Natural Rights is that it:
(a) places societal interests above individual interests
(b) assumes that rights exist prior to society
(c) believes that rights are the creations of the sovereign
(d) puts too much emphasis on social recognition of rights
Ans. (b)
Q. 22. The entitlement theory of property has been propounded by:
(a) John Locke
(b) John Rawls
(c) Hayek
(d) Nozick
Ans. (a)
Q. 23. Who among the following thinkers made a distinction between Real Will and Actual Will?
(a) Rousseau
(b) Green
(c) Bosanquet
(d) Kant
Ans. (a)
Q. 24. Match List- I with List -II and select the correct answer:
List- I List-II
(Rules/relations) (Law of Nature)
A. Rules which govern relations among individuals 1. Domestic Law
B. Principles which govern relations between states 2. Administrative Law
C. Principles which govern the conduct between different 3. International Law
levels of government (such as federal, state, local)
D. Principles which govern the relations between s various 4.Constitutional Law
governmental agencies and between government and citizens
5. Private Law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 5
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 5 3 4 2
Ans. (d)
Q. 25. The theory of justice the man thrust of which is on fairness is known as:
(a) metaphysical theory of justice
(b) political theory of justice
(c) legal theory of justice
(d) retributive theory of justice
Ans. (c)
UPSC IAS Prelims Practice test Political Science
UPSC IAS Prelims Practice test Political Science
UPSC Model Questions - Civil Service India
Free Pol Science Test Online Practice Test Prepare For UPSC IAS prelims
Q. 1. An inter-State Council may be established by:
(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the National Development
(d) the Zonal Council
Ans. (b)
Q. 2. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the Parliamentary system of government in India operates?
1. Nominal Executive Head
2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper House
3. Real Executive authority with the Council of Minister
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House
Choose the correct answer form the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 3. Under the term “Double Jeopardy” implied in Clausu?2 of Article 20 of the Constitution of India, a person:
(a) convicted by a court of law cannot be punished under department proceedings for the same offence
(b) punished departmentally cannot be prosecuted in a court of law for the same offence
(c) shall not be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(d) cannot be subjected to proceedings in civil courts for disobedience of an injunction along with criminal proceedings.
Ans. (c)
Q. 4. Which of the following are the grounds on which discrimination of citizens for admission into educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited?
1. Religion and Race
2. Sex and Place of birth
3. Nationality and Colour
4. Age and Nativity
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 5. Which of the following statements regarding Article 22 of the Constitution of India are correct?
1. The fundamental right conferred by this Article protects persons against and detention in certain cases
2. This fundamental right is guaranteed both to citizens and non-citizens
3. The rights guaranteed. under this provision are applicable to those arrested under laws providing for preventive
4. The rights guaranteed under this provision are not applicable to enemy aliens
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) l and 3
Ans. (a)
Q. 6. A writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court of High Court which:
(a) affects the subject of production and consumption of liquor
(b) prohibits the police from arresting a person
(c) forbids the administrative authority from taking a particular action
(d) prohibits a quasi-judicial authority from proceedings with a case
Ans. (d)
Q. 7. Which one of the following is not included as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution of India?
(a) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle.
(b) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(c) To protect the minorities
(d) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Ans. (c)
Q. 8. Which one of the following Directive Principles was not originally provided for the Constitution of India?
(a) Citizen’s right to an adequate means of livelihood
(b) Free Legal Aid
(c) Free and compulsory education to children under 14 years of age
(d) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and calves.
Ans. (b)
Q. 9. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Art. 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then:
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved
(b) Article 19 is suspended in the State
(c) Parliament assume the power to legislate on the subjects in the State list
Ans. (c)
Q. 10. A non-money bill passed by the Parliament is returned by the President to Parliament for reconsideration. It is passed once again by the Parliament without any change. Now, the
(a) President can again withhold his assent
(b) Bill will automatically lapse
(c) Bill will be referred to the Supreme Court
(d) President will give his assent
Ans. (d)
Q. 11. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least:
(a) thrice each year with no more than two months between sessions
(b) twice each year with no more than three months between sessions
(c) twice each year with no more’ than four months between sessions
(d) twice each year with no. more than six months between sessions
Ans. (d)
Q. 12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): A candidate for Vice-President must be qualified for election as a member Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The Vice-President functions as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)
Q. 13. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List -I List- II
A. Division 1. Brings the debate to a close
B. Guillotine 2. Formal proposal made by a member to the House
C. Motion 3 Relates to interpretation enforcement of the rules procedure or
Constitution
D. Point of order 4. Concludes discussion on demand for grants
5. Mode of arriving at a decision
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 5 1 2
(b) 5 4 1 3
(c) 5 4 2 3
(d) 4 5 2 1
Ans. (c)
Q. 14. Which of the following statements regarding Supreme Court of India are correct?
1. It has the power to entertain appeal from any court or tribunal within India.
2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any question of fact or law referred to it by the President.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court subject to vote by the Parliament.
4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Ans. (d)
Q. 15.The doctrine of judicial review in the U.S.A is:
(a) enunciated in the Constitution
(b) derived from judicial decisions
(c) inherent in the very nature of judicial function
(d) result of the operation of the principle of rule of law
Ans. (a)
Q. 16. Dicey’s principle of the Rule of Law implies that:
(a) nobody is above law
(b) everybody is equal before law
(c) Constitution is the result of judicial decisions
(d) Parliament is source of all law
Ans. (b)
Q. 17. The term ‘Law’ used in the phrase ‘Rule’ of Law’ refers to:
(a) positive law
(b) natural law
(c) conventions of the Constitution
(d) common law
Ans. (a)
Q. 18. Which one of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial body in order to free a person who has been illegally detained?
(a) Quo Warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans. (d)
Q. 19. Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution?
1. Multiple procedures for amendment.
2. States are not empowered to initiate amendment.
3. Certain amendments have to be passed just by State legislatures.
4. Joint-sittings of Parliament to solve disputes regarding Constitutional amendments.
Select the correct answer from ‘the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): India is a Union of States and not a Federal State.
Reason (R): in the following Constitution, the Centre is given emergency powers which can convent the State into a Unitary.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following .is correct?
Codes :
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is false
Ans. (b)
Q. 21. In India, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
(a) members of both House of Parliament.
(b) elected members of both House of Parliament
(c) elect Members of both House of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
(d) members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies
Ans. (a)
Q. 22. The Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from office during his tenure by:
(a) the Chief Justice of India if some charges are proved against him
(b) by the President on the basis of a resolution of the Union Cabinet
(c) by a Committee consisting of Chief Justice of India Law Minister of India and the Vice-President of India
(d) by the President on the basis of resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority
Ans. (d)
Q. 23. Which one of the following. States has seats reserved in the Legislative Assembly on the basis of religion? .
(a) Goa
(b) Sikkim
(c) Mizoram
(d) J & K
Ans. (a)
Q. 24, The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 126
Ans. (a)
Q. 25. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. The Indian Union : Union list, State list and Concurrent list
2. Canadian Federation : The right to secede
3. The American Federation : Dual citizenship
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Q. 26. There is a simple integrated judiciary in:
(a) India, Canada and Australia
(b) India, Nigeria and Canada
(c) The U.S.A., India and Australia
(d) The US.A, India and Canada
Ans. (b)
Q. 27. In which of the following federations does the second Chamber have equal representation of the state?
1. U.S.A
2. India
3. Australia
4. Canada
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 4
(b) l and 2
(c) l and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Q. 28. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List –I List- II
A. Madhya Pradesh 1. Anchalik Parishad
B. West Bengal 2. Janapad Panchayat
C. Uttar Pradesh 3. Taluka Panchayat
D. Gujarat 4. Kshetra Samiti
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 29. Which one of the following Prime Ministers did not to the Ministry as a branch of the executive, in a parliamentary democracy?
(a) Political and permanent
(b) Non-political and non-permanent
(c) Neutral and permanent
(d) Neutral and non-permanent
Ans. (d)
Q. 30. Following duties have been prescribed for the State and the citizens:
1. To develop scientific temper
2. To promote common brotherhood
3. To organize village panchayats
4. To minimize the inequalities in income
5. To secure a uniform civil code
6. To defend the country
Among these the fundamental duties of the citizens would include:
(a) l, 3 and 4
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 6
(d) 2, 5 and 6
Ans. (c)
Q. 31. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule ma state?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. The removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies .
4. Takeover of the State administration by the Union government
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 32. Which of the following federal principles are not found in Indian federation?
1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the Federal and State Government
2. The Federal and State Government have their own officials to administer their respective law and functions
3. The union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding from the Union at its will.
4. Federal Government can redraw the map of the Indian Union by forming new State (s). Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 33. In India there is a single constitution for the Union and the states with the exception of:
(a) Sikkim
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Nagaland
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
Q. 34. Which Articles of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate on any matter of the State List?
(a) Article 115
(b) Article 183
(c) Article 221
(d) Article 226
Ans. (c)
Q. 35. On the subject of Income Tax:
(a) The Union Government has more powers than State governments
(b) The State governments have more powers than the Union governments
(c) Both Union and State governments have equal powers but Union shall prevails in case of conflict
(d) Only the Union government has power
Ans. (d)
Q. 36. Which of the following is a correct statement about the President of India?
(a) The President of India can address both House of Parliament can summon the Houses of Parliament and can send messages to either House of Parliament
(b) Can summon the Houses of Parliament but cannot send messages to either Houses of Parliament
(c) Can send messages to either House Parliament, but cannot summon the Houses of Parliament
(d) Cannot send messages to either House of Parliament or summon the Houses of Parliament
Ans. (a)
Q. 37. There is no Constitutional provision for award of titles, so a prominent member of Constituent Assembly refused to accept it. He was
(a) K.M. Munshi
(b) H.N. Kunzru
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) R.S. Muddaliar
Ans. (a)
Q. 38. Which one of the following committees is not a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Consultative Committee to the finance
(c) Consultative Committee to the Ministry of finance
Ans. (d)
Q. 39. Assertion (A): Money bills originate only in the Lower House of Parliament:
Reason (R): The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly elected body:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
Q. 40. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The President of India is indirectly elected.
Reason (R): Under a parliamentary system of government, the head of the state is only a nominal head.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)
Q. 41. The authority to declare war or peace under the Indian Constitutions is vested in:
(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the Defense Minister
(c) the Parliament
(d) the President
Ans. (d)
Q. 42. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) directly elected by the, people
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(c) elected by the Legislature of various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states
(d) nominated by the Congress and the Muslim League
Ans. (c)
Q. 43. Fundamental rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by:
(a) a proclamation of national emergency
(b) an Act passed by the Parliament
(c) an amendment of the Constitution
(d) the judicial decision of the Supreme Court
Ans. (a)
Q. 44. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional prerogative of the President of India?
(a) Returning a Legislative Bill for reconsideration
(b) Returning of Financial Bill for reconsideration
(c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(d) Summoning the Rajya Sabha
Ans. (b)
Q. 45. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by:
(a) elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) elected members of Rajya Sabha
(c) elected members of Parliament
(d) all members of Parliament
Ans. (d)
Q. 46. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is guaranteed only to the citizens of India and not to the foreign living in India?
(a) Equality before law and equal protection of law
(b) Freedom of speech and expression
(c) Right to life and liberty
(d) Right to the freedom of religion
Ans. (b)
Q. 47. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer:
List- I List -II
A. Vote on account 1. Lump sum money granted without detailed
estimates
B. Vote on credit 2. Additional expenditure not covered in the
approved budget
C. Supplementary demand for grants 3.Amount spent in excess of the grants
D. Excess demand for grants 4. Grants in advance pending budgetary approval
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (c)
Q. 48. Which of the following expenditure shall be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister and other expenditure relating to his office.
3. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of state
4. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 49. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul’, of the Constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Right to freedom of religion
Ans. (c)
Q. 50. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List-I List- II
A. The Keshavanand Bharti case 1. Theory of parliamentary sovereignty
B. The Golaknath case 2. Theory of basic structure of Indian
Constitution
C. Bank Nationalization case 3. Fundamental rights cannot be amended
D. 25th amendment to Indian Constitution 4. Compensation should be paid according to
market value
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (a)
UPSC Model Questions - Civil Service India
Free Pol Science Test Online Practice Test Prepare For UPSC IAS prelims
Q. 1. An inter-State Council may be established by:
(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the National Development
(d) the Zonal Council
Ans. (b)
Q. 2. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the Parliamentary system of government in India operates?
1. Nominal Executive Head
2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper House
3. Real Executive authority with the Council of Minister
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House
Choose the correct answer form the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 3. Under the term “Double Jeopardy” implied in Clausu?2 of Article 20 of the Constitution of India, a person:
(a) convicted by a court of law cannot be punished under department proceedings for the same offence
(b) punished departmentally cannot be prosecuted in a court of law for the same offence
(c) shall not be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(d) cannot be subjected to proceedings in civil courts for disobedience of an injunction along with criminal proceedings.
Ans. (c)
Q. 4. Which of the following are the grounds on which discrimination of citizens for admission into educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited?
1. Religion and Race
2. Sex and Place of birth
3. Nationality and Colour
4. Age and Nativity
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 5. Which of the following statements regarding Article 22 of the Constitution of India are correct?
1. The fundamental right conferred by this Article protects persons against and detention in certain cases
2. This fundamental right is guaranteed both to citizens and non-citizens
3. The rights guaranteed. under this provision are applicable to those arrested under laws providing for preventive
4. The rights guaranteed under this provision are not applicable to enemy aliens
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) l and 3
Ans. (a)
Q. 6. A writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court of High Court which:
(a) affects the subject of production and consumption of liquor
(b) prohibits the police from arresting a person
(c) forbids the administrative authority from taking a particular action
(d) prohibits a quasi-judicial authority from proceedings with a case
Ans. (d)
Q. 7. Which one of the following is not included as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution of India?
(a) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle.
(b) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(c) To protect the minorities
(d) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Ans. (c)
Q. 8. Which one of the following Directive Principles was not originally provided for the Constitution of India?
(a) Citizen’s right to an adequate means of livelihood
(b) Free Legal Aid
(c) Free and compulsory education to children under 14 years of age
(d) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and calves.
Ans. (b)
Q. 9. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Art. 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then:
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved
(b) Article 19 is suspended in the State
(c) Parliament assume the power to legislate on the subjects in the State list
Ans. (c)
Q. 10. A non-money bill passed by the Parliament is returned by the President to Parliament for reconsideration. It is passed once again by the Parliament without any change. Now, the
(a) President can again withhold his assent
(b) Bill will automatically lapse
(c) Bill will be referred to the Supreme Court
(d) President will give his assent
Ans. (d)
Q. 11. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least:
(a) thrice each year with no more than two months between sessions
(b) twice each year with no more than three months between sessions
(c) twice each year with no more’ than four months between sessions
(d) twice each year with no. more than six months between sessions
Ans. (d)
Q. 12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): A candidate for Vice-President must be qualified for election as a member Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The Vice-President functions as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)
Q. 13. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List -I List- II
A. Division 1. Brings the debate to a close
B. Guillotine 2. Formal proposal made by a member to the House
C. Motion 3 Relates to interpretation enforcement of the rules procedure or
Constitution
D. Point of order 4. Concludes discussion on demand for grants
5. Mode of arriving at a decision
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 5 1 2
(b) 5 4 1 3
(c) 5 4 2 3
(d) 4 5 2 1
Ans. (c)
Q. 14. Which of the following statements regarding Supreme Court of India are correct?
1. It has the power to entertain appeal from any court or tribunal within India.
2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any question of fact or law referred to it by the President.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court subject to vote by the Parliament.
4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Ans. (d)
Q. 15.The doctrine of judicial review in the U.S.A is:
(a) enunciated in the Constitution
(b) derived from judicial decisions
(c) inherent in the very nature of judicial function
(d) result of the operation of the principle of rule of law
Ans. (a)
Q. 16. Dicey’s principle of the Rule of Law implies that:
(a) nobody is above law
(b) everybody is equal before law
(c) Constitution is the result of judicial decisions
(d) Parliament is source of all law
Ans. (b)
Q. 17. The term ‘Law’ used in the phrase ‘Rule’ of Law’ refers to:
(a) positive law
(b) natural law
(c) conventions of the Constitution
(d) common law
Ans. (a)
Q. 18. Which one of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial body in order to free a person who has been illegally detained?
(a) Quo Warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans. (d)
Q. 19. Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution?
1. Multiple procedures for amendment.
2. States are not empowered to initiate amendment.
3. Certain amendments have to be passed just by State legislatures.
4. Joint-sittings of Parliament to solve disputes regarding Constitutional amendments.
Select the correct answer from ‘the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): India is a Union of States and not a Federal State.
Reason (R): in the following Constitution, the Centre is given emergency powers which can convent the State into a Unitary.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following .is correct?
Codes :
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is false
Ans. (b)
Q. 21. In India, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
(a) members of both House of Parliament.
(b) elected members of both House of Parliament
(c) elect Members of both House of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
(d) members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies
Ans. (a)
Q. 22. The Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from office during his tenure by:
(a) the Chief Justice of India if some charges are proved against him
(b) by the President on the basis of a resolution of the Union Cabinet
(c) by a Committee consisting of Chief Justice of India Law Minister of India and the Vice-President of India
(d) by the President on the basis of resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority
Ans. (d)
Q. 23. Which one of the following. States has seats reserved in the Legislative Assembly on the basis of religion? .
(a) Goa
(b) Sikkim
(c) Mizoram
(d) J & K
Ans. (a)
Q. 24, The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 126
Ans. (a)
Q. 25. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. The Indian Union : Union list, State list and Concurrent list
2. Canadian Federation : The right to secede
3. The American Federation : Dual citizenship
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Q. 26. There is a simple integrated judiciary in:
(a) India, Canada and Australia
(b) India, Nigeria and Canada
(c) The U.S.A., India and Australia
(d) The US.A, India and Canada
Ans. (b)
Q. 27. In which of the following federations does the second Chamber have equal representation of the state?
1. U.S.A
2. India
3. Australia
4. Canada
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 4
(b) l and 2
(c) l and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Q. 28. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List –I List- II
A. Madhya Pradesh 1. Anchalik Parishad
B. West Bengal 2. Janapad Panchayat
C. Uttar Pradesh 3. Taluka Panchayat
D. Gujarat 4. Kshetra Samiti
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 29. Which one of the following Prime Ministers did not to the Ministry as a branch of the executive, in a parliamentary democracy?
(a) Political and permanent
(b) Non-political and non-permanent
(c) Neutral and permanent
(d) Neutral and non-permanent
Ans. (d)
Q. 30. Following duties have been prescribed for the State and the citizens:
1. To develop scientific temper
2. To promote common brotherhood
3. To organize village panchayats
4. To minimize the inequalities in income
5. To secure a uniform civil code
6. To defend the country
Among these the fundamental duties of the citizens would include:
(a) l, 3 and 4
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 6
(d) 2, 5 and 6
Ans. (c)
Q. 31. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule ma state?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. The removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies .
4. Takeover of the State administration by the Union government
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 32. Which of the following federal principles are not found in Indian federation?
1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the Federal and State Government
2. The Federal and State Government have their own officials to administer their respective law and functions
3. The union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding from the Union at its will.
4. Federal Government can redraw the map of the Indian Union by forming new State (s). Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 33. In India there is a single constitution for the Union and the states with the exception of:
(a) Sikkim
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Nagaland
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
Q. 34. Which Articles of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate on any matter of the State List?
(a) Article 115
(b) Article 183
(c) Article 221
(d) Article 226
Ans. (c)
Q. 35. On the subject of Income Tax:
(a) The Union Government has more powers than State governments
(b) The State governments have more powers than the Union governments
(c) Both Union and State governments have equal powers but Union shall prevails in case of conflict
(d) Only the Union government has power
Ans. (d)
Q. 36. Which of the following is a correct statement about the President of India?
(a) The President of India can address both House of Parliament can summon the Houses of Parliament and can send messages to either House of Parliament
(b) Can summon the Houses of Parliament but cannot send messages to either Houses of Parliament
(c) Can send messages to either House Parliament, but cannot summon the Houses of Parliament
(d) Cannot send messages to either House of Parliament or summon the Houses of Parliament
Ans. (a)
Q. 37. There is no Constitutional provision for award of titles, so a prominent member of Constituent Assembly refused to accept it. He was
(a) K.M. Munshi
(b) H.N. Kunzru
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) R.S. Muddaliar
Ans. (a)
Q. 38. Which one of the following committees is not a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Consultative Committee to the finance
(c) Consultative Committee to the Ministry of finance
Ans. (d)
Q. 39. Assertion (A): Money bills originate only in the Lower House of Parliament:
Reason (R): The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly elected body:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
Q. 40. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The President of India is indirectly elected.
Reason (R): Under a parliamentary system of government, the head of the state is only a nominal head.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)
Q. 41. The authority to declare war or peace under the Indian Constitutions is vested in:
(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the Defense Minister
(c) the Parliament
(d) the President
Ans. (d)
Q. 42. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) directly elected by the, people
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(c) elected by the Legislature of various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states
(d) nominated by the Congress and the Muslim League
Ans. (c)
Q. 43. Fundamental rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by:
(a) a proclamation of national emergency
(b) an Act passed by the Parliament
(c) an amendment of the Constitution
(d) the judicial decision of the Supreme Court
Ans. (a)
Q. 44. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional prerogative of the President of India?
(a) Returning a Legislative Bill for reconsideration
(b) Returning of Financial Bill for reconsideration
(c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(d) Summoning the Rajya Sabha
Ans. (b)
Q. 45. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by:
(a) elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) elected members of Rajya Sabha
(c) elected members of Parliament
(d) all members of Parliament
Ans. (d)
Q. 46. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is guaranteed only to the citizens of India and not to the foreign living in India?
(a) Equality before law and equal protection of law
(b) Freedom of speech and expression
(c) Right to life and liberty
(d) Right to the freedom of religion
Ans. (b)
Q. 47. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer:
List- I List -II
A. Vote on account 1. Lump sum money granted without detailed
estimates
B. Vote on credit 2. Additional expenditure not covered in the
approved budget
C. Supplementary demand for grants 3.Amount spent in excess of the grants
D. Excess demand for grants 4. Grants in advance pending budgetary approval
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (c)
Q. 48. Which of the following expenditure shall be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister and other expenditure relating to his office.
3. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of state
4. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 49. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul’, of the Constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Right to freedom of religion
Ans. (c)
Q. 50. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List-I List- II
A. The Keshavanand Bharti case 1. Theory of parliamentary sovereignty
B. The Golaknath case 2. Theory of basic structure of Indian
Constitution
C. Bank Nationalization case 3. Fundamental rights cannot be amended
D. 25th amendment to Indian Constitution 4. Compensation should be paid according to
market value
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (a)
UPSC Civil Services Political Science Practice test
UPSC Civil Services Political Science Practice test
Political Science Model Soved Questions UPSC Civil Services prelims
Political Science Practice Set for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination
1. Consider the following statements:
1. No discussion can take place in the Legislature of a state with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court as per the provisions of Constitution of India.
2. There is no restriction on the discussion to take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the State’s High Court as per provisions of the Constitution of India..
3. Courts cannot enquire into any proceedings of the Legislatures as per the provisions of Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
2. President’s Rule can be imposed on a State under the provision of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
1. Article 356
2. Article 360
3. Article 352
4. Article 365
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (b)
3. Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha has exclusive power to recommend the Constitution of which one of the following?
(a) River-valley development authorities
(b) Zonal Councils
(c) Administrative tribunals
(d) New All-India Services
Ans. (d)
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Constitution (Major Subject)
of Indian Amendment Act)
A. 19th 1. Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Lok Sabha and
Legislative Assemblies in the States
B. 25th 2. Duties of the Election Commission
C. 31st 3. Compensation in the acquisition of property
D. 45th 4. Increase in the elected seats in Lok Sabha
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (b)
5. How can an amendment in a list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India be initiated?
If the Bill seeking amendment is passed in either House of Parliament by
(a) a majority of the total membership of that house.
(b) a majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than two-third of the members of that House present and voting.
(c) (b) above and the amendment shall require to be ratified by the Legislatures of States by not less than one-half of the members of the States.
(d) (b) above and the amendment shall require to be ratified by the Legislatures of States by not less that than two-third of the members of the States.
Ans. (c)
6. Which one of the following statements with regard to Finance Commissions in states in India is not correct?
(a) The 74th Amendment of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission by a State to review the financial position of the municipalities
(b) The Chief Minister of the State decides the composition of the Finance Commission and nominates the Chairman
(c) The Finance Commission is expected to recommend the division of resources between the State and the municipalities within the State
(d) The Finance Commission is authorized to make recommendations with regard to grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of a State
Ans. (b)
7. Welfare states, in general, are focused on which of the following provisions?
(a) Separation of state from religion, education and health
(b) Employment, infrastructure and education
(c) Minority rights, employment and education
(d) Education, employment and health
Ans. (d)
8. Identify the French author who coined the term ‘Third World’?
(a) Jean Paul Sartre
(b) Alfred Sauvy
(c) Franz Fanon
(d) Pierre Bourdieu
Ans. (b)
9. Which one of the following can be characterized as a ‘new social movement’?
(a) Workers’ movement
(b) Peasants’ movement
(c) Peace movement
(d) Anti-colonial movement
Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following events:
1. Tokyo Round
2. Doha Round
3. Kennedy Round
4. Uruguay Round
What is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(a) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1
(b) 3 - 1 - 4 – 2
(c) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2
(d) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1
Ans. (b)
11. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the successor to which one of the following institutional arrangements?
(a) World Trade Community
(b) International Trade and Development Association
(c) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(d) Association for Economic and Social Reconstruction
Ans. (c)
12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) LTTE — Tamil Eelam
(b) HAMAS — Independent Palestine
(c) IRA — Irish Republic
(d) Sendero Laminoso
(Shining Path) — Bolivian Revolution
Ans. (d)
13. According to National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who among the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
(b) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(c) Any serving judge of the High Court
(d) Any serving judge of the Supreme Court
Ans. (b)
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Book) (Author)
A. Anarchy State and Utopia 1. Milton Friedman
B. A Theory of Justice 2. Robert Nozick
C. Democracy and its Critics 3. John Rawls
D. Capitalism and Freedom 4. Robert Dahl
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (c)
15. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(School of Historiography) (Views on Communalism)
A. Imperialist School 1. The inhabitants of the sub-continent are prone
to religious appeal as they are superstitious
B. Cambridge School 2. Communalism is a false consciousness
C. Nationalist School 3. It is a result of conscious British policy of
divide and rule
D. Marxist School 4. Communalism is a product of the ambition of
elite groups
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (a)
16. Based on the census 2001, consider the following statements:
1. Female/male ratio in India in the year 2001 is more than that in the year 1951.
2. After Delhi and Chandigarh, Pondicherry has the highest population density amongst all the States and Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
17. Which one of the following is not an anti-poverty programme of Govt. of India?
(a) IRDP
(b) NREP
(c) RLEGP
(d) CRSP
Ans. (d)
18. Based on the census 2001, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh is higher than that in Karnataka
(b) The literacy rate in India in the year 2001 was about 3.5 times of that in the year 1951
(c) The literacy rate in Daman and Diu is minimum amongst the Union Territories
(d) In Assam, population of the Scheduled Tribes is nearly double than population of Scheduled Castes
Ans. (c)
Directions: The following items consist of two statements are labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason. R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but l. is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
19. Assertion (A): Education is the fundamental right of every child between the age of 6 and 14 years.
Reason (R): One out of every four children in India does not go to school.
Ans. (b)
20. Assertion (A): If different cultures are unequally valued, it affects the freedom of their members.
Reason (R): The self is constituted, at least partly, in and through its culture.
Ans. (a)
Political Science Model Soved Questions UPSC Civil Services prelims
Political Science Practice Set for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination
1. Consider the following statements:
1. No discussion can take place in the Legislature of a state with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court as per the provisions of Constitution of India.
2. There is no restriction on the discussion to take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the State’s High Court as per provisions of the Constitution of India..
3. Courts cannot enquire into any proceedings of the Legislatures as per the provisions of Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
2. President’s Rule can be imposed on a State under the provision of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
1. Article 356
2. Article 360
3. Article 352
4. Article 365
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (b)
3. Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha has exclusive power to recommend the Constitution of which one of the following?
(a) River-valley development authorities
(b) Zonal Councils
(c) Administrative tribunals
(d) New All-India Services
Ans. (d)
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Constitution (Major Subject)
of Indian Amendment Act)
A. 19th 1. Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Lok Sabha and
Legislative Assemblies in the States
B. 25th 2. Duties of the Election Commission
C. 31st 3. Compensation in the acquisition of property
D. 45th 4. Increase in the elected seats in Lok Sabha
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (b)
5. How can an amendment in a list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India be initiated?
If the Bill seeking amendment is passed in either House of Parliament by
(a) a majority of the total membership of that house.
(b) a majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than two-third of the members of that House present and voting.
(c) (b) above and the amendment shall require to be ratified by the Legislatures of States by not less than one-half of the members of the States.
(d) (b) above and the amendment shall require to be ratified by the Legislatures of States by not less that than two-third of the members of the States.
Ans. (c)
6. Which one of the following statements with regard to Finance Commissions in states in India is not correct?
(a) The 74th Amendment of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission by a State to review the financial position of the municipalities
(b) The Chief Minister of the State decides the composition of the Finance Commission and nominates the Chairman
(c) The Finance Commission is expected to recommend the division of resources between the State and the municipalities within the State
(d) The Finance Commission is authorized to make recommendations with regard to grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of a State
Ans. (b)
7. Welfare states, in general, are focused on which of the following provisions?
(a) Separation of state from religion, education and health
(b) Employment, infrastructure and education
(c) Minority rights, employment and education
(d) Education, employment and health
Ans. (d)
8. Identify the French author who coined the term ‘Third World’?
(a) Jean Paul Sartre
(b) Alfred Sauvy
(c) Franz Fanon
(d) Pierre Bourdieu
Ans. (b)
9. Which one of the following can be characterized as a ‘new social movement’?
(a) Workers’ movement
(b) Peasants’ movement
(c) Peace movement
(d) Anti-colonial movement
Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following events:
1. Tokyo Round
2. Doha Round
3. Kennedy Round
4. Uruguay Round
What is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(a) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1
(b) 3 - 1 - 4 – 2
(c) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2
(d) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1
Ans. (b)
11. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the successor to which one of the following institutional arrangements?
(a) World Trade Community
(b) International Trade and Development Association
(c) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(d) Association for Economic and Social Reconstruction
Ans. (c)
12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) LTTE — Tamil Eelam
(b) HAMAS — Independent Palestine
(c) IRA — Irish Republic
(d) Sendero Laminoso
(Shining Path) — Bolivian Revolution
Ans. (d)
13. According to National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who among the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
(b) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(c) Any serving judge of the High Court
(d) Any serving judge of the Supreme Court
Ans. (b)
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Book) (Author)
A. Anarchy State and Utopia 1. Milton Friedman
B. A Theory of Justice 2. Robert Nozick
C. Democracy and its Critics 3. John Rawls
D. Capitalism and Freedom 4. Robert Dahl
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (c)
15. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(School of Historiography) (Views on Communalism)
A. Imperialist School 1. The inhabitants of the sub-continent are prone
to religious appeal as they are superstitious
B. Cambridge School 2. Communalism is a false consciousness
C. Nationalist School 3. It is a result of conscious British policy of
divide and rule
D. Marxist School 4. Communalism is a product of the ambition of
elite groups
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (a)
16. Based on the census 2001, consider the following statements:
1. Female/male ratio in India in the year 2001 is more than that in the year 1951.
2. After Delhi and Chandigarh, Pondicherry has the highest population density amongst all the States and Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
17. Which one of the following is not an anti-poverty programme of Govt. of India?
(a) IRDP
(b) NREP
(c) RLEGP
(d) CRSP
Ans. (d)
18. Based on the census 2001, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh is higher than that in Karnataka
(b) The literacy rate in India in the year 2001 was about 3.5 times of that in the year 1951
(c) The literacy rate in Daman and Diu is minimum amongst the Union Territories
(d) In Assam, population of the Scheduled Tribes is nearly double than population of Scheduled Castes
Ans. (c)
Directions: The following items consist of two statements are labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason. R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but l. is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
19. Assertion (A): Education is the fundamental right of every child between the age of 6 and 14 years.
Reason (R): One out of every four children in India does not go to school.
Ans. (b)
20. Assertion (A): If different cultures are unequally valued, it affects the freedom of their members.
Reason (R): The self is constituted, at least partly, in and through its culture.
Ans. (a)
MCQ POLITICAL SCIENCE
MCQ POLITICAL SCIENCE
Political Science MCQ Question Bank
Political Science Multiple Choice Questions
Q. 1. The liberal idea of toleration has been criticized on which one of the following grounds?
(a) Concentration of resources in a few hands
(b) Social fragmentation
(c) Moral relativism
(d) Possessive individualism
Ans. (c)
Q. 2. Who among the following political theorists was a bitter opponent of the French revolution?
(a) Burke
(b) Tocqueville
(c) Montesquieu
(d) Rousseau
Ans. (a)
Q. 3. Match List- I with List -II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List –I List- II
A. C. Wright Mills 1. Iron Law of Oligarchy
B. Vladimir Lenin 2. The Ruling class
C. Gaetano Mosca 3. The Vanguard Party
D. Robert Michels 4. The Power Elite
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (c)
Q. 4. Match List -I (Theorists) with List- II (ideas) and select the correct-answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List- II
A. John Stuart Mill 1. Alienation
B. Karl Marx 2. Positive and negative liberty
C. I. Berlin 3. Equality for women
D. John Locke 4. Toleration
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (b)
Q. 5. Theorists who believe that ‘State is an association of associations’ are best described as:
(a) socialists
(b) federalists
(c) anarchists
(d) pluralists
Ans. (d)
Q. 6. With which one of the following can the organic conception of the State be associated?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Aristotle
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) Karl Marx
Ans. (b)
Q. 7. The pluralist theory views power as:
(a) control over resources
(b) a fixed quantity
(c) relational
(d) repressive
Ans. (c)
Q. 8. Consider the following statements:
Legitimacy entails:
1. generating beliefs that ensure the survival of a democracy in capitalist societies
2. a process by which power gains acceptance
3. an efficient police system for maintaining law and order
4. the absence of coercion
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (c)
Q. 9. Consider the following statements:.
Civil rights:
1. belong to the citizen by virtue of his citizenship
2. are interchangeable with human rights
3. aim to minimize discrimination
4. give us the right to one’s language and culture
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) l, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) l and 3
Ans. (a)
Q. 10. “Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best”.
This statement was made by which one of the following thinkers?
(a) Kant
(b) Hegel
(c) Green
(d) Laski
Ans. (d)
Q. 11. Who among the following was the first to enunciate the concept of sovereignty?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Bodin
(c) Hobbes
(d) Laski
Ans. (b)
Q. 12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Social justice stands for a reasonably defensible distribution of resources and opportunities
Reason (R): Without social justice long term social co-operations unsustainable
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
Q. 13. Given below are two statements a one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The growth of the new functions of the State has mach of Dicey’s analysis of the rule of law irrelevant.
Reason (R): The growth of delegated powers has made the administrative departments considerably immune from the control or criticism of the court of law.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (d)
Q. 14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The concept of political equality results in majoritarianism which is unfair though practical.
Reason (R): Human beings are neither socially nor economically equal.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
Q. 15. Consider the following factors:,
1. Perception
2. Imagination
3. Expectation
4. Information overload
Which of the above the factors as discussed by John Burton determine a decision?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Q. 16. Conception of negative liberty emphasizes on:
(a) freedom of choice
(b) absence of interference
(c) autonomy
(d) self-direction
Ans. (b)
Q. 17. Consider the following statements on equality:
1. The quest for equality does not imply de facto equality
2. Men and women may not be born alike. But equality demands that they ought to be treated equality
3. We seek equality because we think is it just
4. Egalitarian principles have been drawn on the principle that men and women are identical
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b), 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. (b)
Q. 18. What is the most fundamental notion underlying the Marxist vision of justice?
(a) Need
(b) Desert
(c) Class
(d) Exploitation
Ans. (c)
Q. 19. The concept of civil society originated in.
(a) the reformation
(b) the French Revolution
(c) the French Revolution
(d) the enlightenment
Ans. (a)
Q. 20. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List- I (Ideas) List -II (Thinkers)
A. Utility 1. Madison
B. Hegemony 2. Bentham
C. Representation 3. Gramsci
Codes:
A B C
(a) 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 1 2 3
(d) 2 3 1
Ans. (d)
Q. 21. Which one of the following slogans is not associated with the Russian Revolution?
(a) No taxation without representation
(b) Land, Bread and Peace
(c) All power to the Soviets
(d) Vanguard ship of the revolutionary party
Ans. (a)
Q. 22. The concept of ‘Circulation of elites’ has been used by:
(a) Gaetano Mosea
(b) Vilfredo Pareto
(c) Robert Michels
(d) Max Weber
Ans. (b)
Q. 23. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Karl Marx : Grundrisse
(b) Harold Laski : Grammar of Politics
(c) Aristotle : The Statesman
(d) Karl Popper : Open Society and its Enemies.
Ans. (c)
Q. 24. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List- I (Theorists) List -II (Concept)
A. Gierke and Maitland 1. Moral adequacy
B. Harold J. Laski 2. Socialist Solidarity
C. Leon Duguit 3. Real personality
D. Webbs 4. Social Parliaments and Political Parliament
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (b)
Q. 25. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Contribution) (Scholar)
A. Lectures on Jurisprudence 1. Jeremy Bentham
B. Fragments on government 2. John Austin
C. The spirit of laws 3. Niccolo Machiavelli
D. The Prince 4.Montesquieu
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (d)
Q. 26. Match List -I with. List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.:
List-I (Proponent) List -II (Concept)
A. David Easton 1. Authoritative allocation of values
B. Hans Morentheau 2. Shaping and sharing of power
C. Lasswell/Kaplan 3. Struggle for power
D. Michael Foucault 4. Knowledge is power
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans. (d)
Q. 27. Why do pluralists oppose the traditional concept of sovereignty?
(a) Because other associations are as important as the Stat.
(b) Because it comes in the way of international cooperation.
(c) Because it is anti-democratic
(d) Because it is ineffective.
Ans. (a)
Q. 28. Who among the following theorized civil society as an ideological domain?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Hegel
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) Noam Chomsky
Ans. (c)
Q. 29. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Jeremy Bentham 1. Ruthless in criticism of eighteenth century French society
B. Edmund Burke 2. Supremacy of reason, rejection of patriarchy and political
absolutism
C. John Locke 3. Utilitarianism
D. Jena Jacques Rousseau 4. Criticism of the French Revolution.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (b)
Q. 30. Which one of the following types of equality is not compatible with the liberal notion of equality?
(a) Legal equality
(b) Political equality
(c) Social equality
(d) Economic equality
Ans. (d)
Q. 31. According to W.W. Rostow, which one of the following is the correct order of the stages of economic growth?
(a) Traditional society — Drive towards maturity — Preconditions for take off— Take off— The search for quality — Age of high mass consumption.
(b) Drive towards maturity — Preconditions for take off — Take off - The search for quality — Age of high mass consumption - Traditional society
(c) Traditional society — Preconditions for take off — Take Off — Drive towards maturity — Age of high mass consumption - The search for quality
(d) Age of high mass consumption - The search for quality - Traditional society - Drive towards maturity — Preconditions for take off - Take off.
Ans. (c)
Q. 32. Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.:
List- I (Ideas) List-II (Thinkers)
A. Group theory 1. Robert Dahl
B. Polyarchy 2. G. Mosca
C. Elite theory 3. A. F. Bentley
D. Power elite 4. C. Wright Mills
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (c)
Q. 33. Which one of the following revolutions was inspired by the theory of general will?
(a) Bolshevik revolution
(b) French revolution
(c) Industrial revolution
(d) Glorious revolution
Ans. (b)
Q. 34. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List -I (Exponents) List- II (Concepts)
A. Aristotle 1. Urge for equality causes revolutions
B. John Locke 2. Revolution is resetting of things in their proper order
C. Skocpol 3. Structural weaknesses create the potential for
revolutionary crisis
D. Pokybius 4. Revolutions occur when kings fail to protect the rights.
of the subjects
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (a)
Q. 35. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Harmony between the parts of the society : Plato
(b) Greatest good of the greatest number : J. Bentham
(c) Greatest advantages of the least advantaged : John Rawls
(d) Interest of the strongest : Aristotle
Ans. (d)
Q. 36. A growing infringement on liberty of citizens emanates from which one of the following:
(a) A centralized bureaucratic state
(b) Coalition government
(c) Devolution of power
(d) Affirmative action
Ans. (a)
Q. 37. Which one of the following thinkers stressed the productive dimension of power?
(a) Focult
(b) Mill
(c) Marx
(d) Lasswell
Ans. (d)
Q. 38. Rousseau was an advocate of:
(a) individual sovereignty
(b) popular sovereignty
(c) political sovereignty
(d) legal sovereignty
Ans. (b)
Q. 39. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the political philosophy of John Locke?
(a) State of nature - Civil society- Natural rights - Contract
(b) Natural rights - contract- State of nature - civil society
(c) State of nature - Contract - Civil society - Natural rights
(d) Natural rights - State of nature - contract- Civil society
Ans. (d)
Q. 40. Which of the following statements regarding the Seventy Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India are correct?
1. It provides for the insertion of a new Schedule to the Constitution.
2. It restructures the working of the municipalities
3. It provides for the reservation of seats for women and Scheduled Cast in the municipalities
4. It is applicable only to some specified states
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
Q. 41. What was the procedure followed for adoption of the Constitution of India?
(a) It was submt4d to the people of India for ratification
(b) It was submitted to the Governor-General for his assent
(c) It was adopted when the interim government approved it
(d) It was adopted when it received the signature of the President and Members of the Constituent Assembly
Ans. (d)
Q. 42. Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Popular sovereignty and adult franchise are the basic features of the Constitution.
2. The Constitution, in so far as the division of powers between the Centre and the States is concerned, is rigid.
3. The Constitution recognizes the interdependence of civil and economic rights.
4. The Constitution mentions direct control by the people such as referendum, initiative and recall.
(a) l only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Q. 43. The division of legislative powers between the Centre and the States under the present Constitution of India is similar to the between the Centre and the Provinces under the Government of India Act, 1935, in some of the following respects:
1. In case of overlap of a matter as between the three lists or subjects, predominance in both is given to the Central legislature.
2. In case of repugnancy in the Concurrent field, in both a Central law prevails over a Provincial or State law
3. In both, residuary powers were vested in the Central legislature.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Q. 44. Consider the passage given below:
“None of the Acts and Regulations specified in this Schedule nor any of the provision thereof shall be deemed to be void, of ever to have become void, on the ground that such Act, Regulation or provision is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by, any provisions of this part, and not withstanding any judgment, decree or order of any court or tribunal to the contrary, each of the said Acts and Regulations shall, subject to the power of any competent Legislature to repeal or amend it, continue in force.” The reference here is to the:
(a) Seventh Schedule
(b) Eighth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans. (c)
Q. 45. Under the provisions of the Indian Constitution a community can be declared a minority community on the basis of:
(a) religion only
(b) either religion or language
(c) either language or caste
(d) either religion or race
Ans. (b)
Q. 46. A was born in Nasik in 1920 and had gone to Chicago for study. He married Miss B, an American girl there and a son C was born to them in Boston in 1945. All of them came to Pune and continued to stay until the commencement of the Constitution and beyond. C acquired citizenship of India because:
(a) he was born in America before 1947
(b) he was domiciled in India and was born of an Indian parent
(c) he came to India in 1946 and stayed until the commencement of the Constitution
(d) his mother B though a foreigner, also came to India before the commencement of the Constitution
Ans. (b)
Q. 47. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Equality before law : Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens
(b) Altering the name of a State : Power of a state legislature
(c) Creating a new State : Power of Parliament
(d) Equality of opportunity : Guaranteed only to Indian citizens
Ans. (b)
Q. 48. Which of the following are not included in the right to freedom of religion in the Constitution of India?
1. Freedom of conscience and the right to practice and propagate religion
2. Levying of taxes or use of funds of the Government for the promotion or maintenance of any religion
3. Establishment and maintenance of religious and charitable institutions
4. Imparting of religious instruction in any Government maintained institution
(a) l and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
Q. 49. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To respect the National Anthem
(b) To safeguard public property
(c) To protect monuments and. places of national importance
(d) To protect and improve the natural environment
Ans. (c)
Q. 50. Which of the following statements about the changes made by the forty second amendment to the Constitution relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy are correct?
1. It enabled State to provide free legal aid to its citizens.
2. It provided for the State to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings.
3. It made dowry-taking a culpable offence.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
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