MCQ in World geography and climate
Geography Quiz - Multiple Choice Geography Questions
1.Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Tropical evergreen forests have very little undergrowth.
(b) Tropical monsoon' forests have dense Undergrowth
(c) Temperate evergreen forests have rainfall throughout the year _
(D)Coniferous forest are mostly deciduous
ANSWER (D)
2. Grasslands which do not support any trees are called:
(a) Llanos
(b) Campos
(c) Savanna
(d) Steppes
ANSWER (D)
3.The term ‘Granary of the world’ is related to type.
(a) Monsoon
(b) Mediterranean
(c) Temperate
(d) Laurentian
ANSWER (C)
.
4 Match the following:
Forest Places
A. Tropical evergreen 1. Ghana
Forests
B. Equatorial forests 2. Scandinavia
C. Mediterranean forests 3. Indonesia
D. Coniferous forests 4. Philippines
5. Adelaide
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
ANSWER (B)
5. Which of the following statements are true with regard to tropical monsoon climate ?
I. Temperatures range from 32°C in the hot season to about 15°C in the cool
season
ll. Annual rainfall varies greatly
III. The climate is best developed in the Southern continents
IV. It consists of three main seasons ie. Cool,dry season; hot, dry season; hot, wet Season
(a) I and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) II and III'
(d) I, II and IV
ANSWER (D)
6. Which one of the following areas is dominant in hunting and gathering?
(a)Hot desert
(b) Cold' desert
(c) Tropical forest
(d) Temperate grassland
ANSWER (C)
7. Among the following climatic factors, which one has the least effect upon a terrestrial
ecosystem?
(a) Temperature variation
(b) Wind
(c) Conditions of sunlight
(d) Availability of water
ANSWER (B)
8. Which one of the following factors is not a determining fact of the climate ?
(a) Latitude,
(b) Longitude
(c) Land and Sea contrasts
(d) Relief features
ANSWER (B)
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Taiga biome stretches across large Pans of Canada, Europe and Asia
2. Taiga is the largest biome in the world
3. A lot of coniferous trees grows in the Taiga
Which of the statements given above are Correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER (D)
10. What happens to tropical soils when the rain forest is cleared ?
(a) The soil improves to the extent that soluble nutrients are no longer depleted
by the trees
(b) There is little effect on the soil because of its depth of richness
(C) Clearing interrupts the critical nutrient cycle and leads to soil leaching
(d) The soils stabilize and become excellent for grain
ANSWER (C)
11. Which one of the following natural regions is best known for the production of grapes ?
(a) Hot deserts
(b) Monsoon
(c) Equatorial
(d) Mediterranean
ANSWER (D)
12. Which type of forest belt supplies most of the World’s requirement of newsprint ?
(a) Coniferous forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Evergreen forest
(d) Mediterranean forest
ANSWER (A)
13. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rainfall generally increases away from the equatorial region both northwards
and southwards up to about 30° north and south
(b) Mediterranean regions receive rainfall in winter from cyclones
(c) Hot deserts of the world are found in the tropical regions between 15° and 30°
north and south latitudes
(D) Deserts generally receive less than 25 cm of rainfall in a year
ANSWER (A)
14.Of the following countries, the one which has predominantly the Mediterranean Climate is :
(a) USA
(b) Italy
(c) Chile
(d) Australia
ANSWER (B)
15. The climate best suited for horticulture is :
(a) Equatorial
(b) Mediterranean
(c) Monsoon
(d) Tundra
ANSWER (B)
16.China type of climate prevails in :
(a) China, Korea and Vietnam
(b) Southern China, Vietnam and Laos
(c) Central China, North China and
Southern Japan
(d)North China, Southern Russia and Japan
ANSWER (C)
17.Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic hoardersf For
which region is this statement correct ?
(a) African Savanna
(b) Central Asian Steppes
(c) Siberian Tundra
(d) North American Prairies
ANSWER (B)
18.The factors which determine the climate of a place are :
1. Soil . 2. Latitude
3. Altitude 4. Vegetation
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
ANSWER (C)
19. Monsoon’ effect is also experienced in :
(a) East Africa
(b) Nile Basin
(c) South Africa
(d) West Africa
ANSWER (A)
20. Which one of the following countries produces the largest amount of crude steel of
the world ?
(a) Japan
(b) USA
(c) South Korea
(d) China'
ANSWER (D)
21.Which is the world’s largest desert ?
(a) Sahara
(b) Gobi
(c) Thar
(d) None of these
ANSWER (A)
22.Which of the following is an example of Midlatitude desert ?
(a) Sahara desert
(b) Arabian desert
(c) Thar desert
(d) Patagonia desert
ANSWER (D)
23.The driest spot on earth is in the Atacama desert, parts of which went without rain for
400 years. The Atacama is in :
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Canada
(d) South America
ANSWER (D)
24. Match the following :
A. Desert 1. Coniferous forests
B. Mediterranean 2. Long grass
C. Steppes 3. Short grass
D. Taiga 4. Thick -and smooth
leaf trees
5. Thorny bushes
A B C D
(a) 1432
(b )5431
(c) 1325
(d) 5432
ANSWER (B)
25.The tropical rain forests are dense and varied because of ;
(a) their remote and inaccessible locations
(b) very little interference from man
(c) an abundance of moisture and warm
temperature throughout the year
(d) poor economic development
ANSWER (C)
Friday, December 9, 2011
Friday, November 25, 2011
Geology Solved objective Test
Geology Solved objective Test
Geology MCQ Practice Solved Questions
1 : The planets were formed from collisions and union numerous small planetary
fragments, was proposed by :
(a) Kant and laplace
(b) Moulton and chamblin
(c) Weizsacker
(d) G.P. Kuiper.
Answer ( B)
2 : The universe, solar system etc. are the result of an explosion within the nebula refers to:
(a) Planetesimal hypothesis
(b) Nebular hypothesis
(c) Big-Bang theory
(d) Tidal. Hypothesis.
Answer ( C)
3 : The planets become isolated masses of matter as the material of the solar-system
Condensed into the sun refers to :
(a) Evolutions theories
(b) Catastrophic theories
(c) Cosmic theories
(d) None of the above.
Answer (a)
4 : Who was the first man to give this present theory that sun is in centre and other
planets move around it. -
(a) Copernicus
(b) Kepler
(c) Aristotle
(d) None of the above.
Answer (A )
5 : Which of the following statements as regards the consequences of the movement of
The earth is not correct.
(a) Rotation of the earth is cause of day and night.
(b) Revolution of the earth is the cause of the change of the season.
(c) Rotation of the earth causes variation in the duration of day and night.
(d) Rotation of the earth affects the movement of wind and ocean currents.
Answer ( C )
6 : Severe thinking of ozone layer of its depletion, tenned as :
(a) Ozone depletion
(b) Ozone hole
(c) Black hole
(d) Ozone cancer.
Answer (B)
7: Ozone layer is found at the altitude of :
(a) 10 to 30 km. -
(B) 20 to 35 km
(C) 40 to 50 km
(D) 50 to 70 km. _
Answer ( B )
8 : What is the name of skin cancer caused by Ultraviolets - B rays :
(a) Melanoma
(b) Ozonite
(c) Epidemoric
(d) None of these.
Answer (a)
9 : Regarding age ot the Earth the average ann-ual rate of deposition of sediments and
the thickness of the all strata deposited during the whole geological history are used for :
(a) Verve-clock method.
(b) Sedimentation-clock method.
(C) salinity - clock method
(d) Non of the above
Answer (B)
10: Verve- clock method can be used for getting geologic- time from :
(a) 0 - 100 yrs. only QQ.
(b) 0 - 1,000 yrs. only
(c) 0 -- 10,000 yrs. only
(d) 0 -- 1,00,000 yrs. Only
Answer ( C)
11 : Lord Kelvin determined the age of the Earth by rate of cooling of the earth- is :
(a) 100 to 1000 m.y.
(b) 20 to 400 m.y.
(c) 120 to 500 m.y.
(d) 200 to 700 m.y.
Answer ( B)
12. : The detection of natural radioactivity given by:
(a) Alfred Nobel
(b) Madame Curie
(c) Nenri Becquerel ,
(d) Otto mahn.
Answer (C)
13 : The determination of the ratio of parent to daughter nuclides in radioactivity is
usually accomplished with the use of : '
(a) Geiger counter
(b) Mass spectrometer
(c) Oscillometer
(d) None of the above.
Answer ( B)
14 : The half-life period of U238 disintegrated to Pb206 is :
(a) 4000 my
(b) 4498 my
(c) 4628 my
(d) 5122 my
Answer (B)
15 : The valuable method, used to date the metamorphic rocks and Pre-combrian rocks
is :
(a)u238 - Pb206 .
(b)Th232 - Pb208
(c) Rb87 - Sr87
(d) K40 _ Ca40
Answer (C)
16: The atmospheric nitrogen, when attacked by cosmic radiation at high altitudes, gives
rise to :
(a) Carbon
(b) Radio-Carbon
(c) Carbon di-oxide
(d) Carbon mon-oxide.
Answer (B)
17 : During the radioactive transformation of uranium to lead, which gas is formed as an
Intermediate product:
(a) Helium `
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Radon
(d) Argon.
Answer (C)
18: A particle, equivalent to the nucleus of helium atom, which is emitted from an
atomic nucleus during radioactive decay is known as :
(a) Alpha particle
(b) Beta particle
(c) Gamma particle
(d) X-ray particle.
Answer (a)
19 : One of the smooth areas on the moon or on some other planets are known as :
(a) Mascons
(b) Mare
(c) Pluvial
(d) Horn.
Answer (B)
20: Magnetic North and South poles are presently located at :
(a) 70° N 100° w and 60° s 140° E
(b) 75° N 101° wand 67° S143° E
(c) 90° N 100° w and 60° s 150° E
(d) 86° N 109° w and 63° s 193° E
Answer (B)
Geology MCQ Practice Solved Questions
1 : The planets were formed from collisions and union numerous small planetary
fragments, was proposed by :
(a) Kant and laplace
(b) Moulton and chamblin
(c) Weizsacker
(d) G.P. Kuiper.
Answer ( B)
2 : The universe, solar system etc. are the result of an explosion within the nebula refers to:
(a) Planetesimal hypothesis
(b) Nebular hypothesis
(c) Big-Bang theory
(d) Tidal. Hypothesis.
Answer ( C)
3 : The planets become isolated masses of matter as the material of the solar-system
Condensed into the sun refers to :
(a) Evolutions theories
(b) Catastrophic theories
(c) Cosmic theories
(d) None of the above.
Answer (a)
4 : Who was the first man to give this present theory that sun is in centre and other
planets move around it. -
(a) Copernicus
(b) Kepler
(c) Aristotle
(d) None of the above.
Answer (A )
5 : Which of the following statements as regards the consequences of the movement of
The earth is not correct.
(a) Rotation of the earth is cause of day and night.
(b) Revolution of the earth is the cause of the change of the season.
(c) Rotation of the earth causes variation in the duration of day and night.
(d) Rotation of the earth affects the movement of wind and ocean currents.
Answer ( C )
6 : Severe thinking of ozone layer of its depletion, tenned as :
(a) Ozone depletion
(b) Ozone hole
(c) Black hole
(d) Ozone cancer.
Answer (B)
7: Ozone layer is found at the altitude of :
(a) 10 to 30 km. -
(B) 20 to 35 km
(C) 40 to 50 km
(D) 50 to 70 km. _
Answer ( B )
8 : What is the name of skin cancer caused by Ultraviolets - B rays :
(a) Melanoma
(b) Ozonite
(c) Epidemoric
(d) None of these.
Answer (a)
9 : Regarding age ot the Earth the average ann-ual rate of deposition of sediments and
the thickness of the all strata deposited during the whole geological history are used for :
(a) Verve-clock method.
(b) Sedimentation-clock method.
(C) salinity - clock method
(d) Non of the above
Answer (B)
10: Verve- clock method can be used for getting geologic- time from :
(a) 0 - 100 yrs. only QQ.
(b) 0 - 1,000 yrs. only
(c) 0 -- 10,000 yrs. only
(d) 0 -- 1,00,000 yrs. Only
Answer ( C)
11 : Lord Kelvin determined the age of the Earth by rate of cooling of the earth- is :
(a) 100 to 1000 m.y.
(b) 20 to 400 m.y.
(c) 120 to 500 m.y.
(d) 200 to 700 m.y.
Answer ( B)
12. : The detection of natural radioactivity given by:
(a) Alfred Nobel
(b) Madame Curie
(c) Nenri Becquerel ,
(d) Otto mahn.
Answer (C)
13 : The determination of the ratio of parent to daughter nuclides in radioactivity is
usually accomplished with the use of : '
(a) Geiger counter
(b) Mass spectrometer
(c) Oscillometer
(d) None of the above.
Answer ( B)
14 : The half-life period of U238 disintegrated to Pb206 is :
(a) 4000 my
(b) 4498 my
(c) 4628 my
(d) 5122 my
Answer (B)
15 : The valuable method, used to date the metamorphic rocks and Pre-combrian rocks
is :
(a)u238 - Pb206 .
(b)Th232 - Pb208
(c) Rb87 - Sr87
(d) K40 _ Ca40
Answer (C)
16: The atmospheric nitrogen, when attacked by cosmic radiation at high altitudes, gives
rise to :
(a) Carbon
(b) Radio-Carbon
(c) Carbon di-oxide
(d) Carbon mon-oxide.
Answer (B)
17 : During the radioactive transformation of uranium to lead, which gas is formed as an
Intermediate product:
(a) Helium `
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Radon
(d) Argon.
Answer (C)
18: A particle, equivalent to the nucleus of helium atom, which is emitted from an
atomic nucleus during radioactive decay is known as :
(a) Alpha particle
(b) Beta particle
(c) Gamma particle
(d) X-ray particle.
Answer (a)
19 : One of the smooth areas on the moon or on some other planets are known as :
(a) Mascons
(b) Mare
(c) Pluvial
(d) Horn.
Answer (B)
20: Magnetic North and South poles are presently located at :
(a) 70° N 100° w and 60° s 140° E
(b) 75° N 101° wand 67° S143° E
(c) 90° N 100° w and 60° s 150° E
(d) 86° N 109° w and 63° s 193° E
Answer (B)
Thursday, November 24, 2011
Solved objective type maths questions on Mensuration Area Volume
Solved objective type maths questions on Mensuration Area Volume
Mensuration, area, volume questions for UPSC Bed and other exams
1. A 10 cm deep well with diameter 6 m is dug and the earth spread even to form a
platform 22cm 10cm x cm. The value of x is
(a) 2.2
(b) 1.12
(c) 1.28
(d) 1.3
Ans. (c)
2. Two cubes of side 1 cm each, four cubes of side 2 cm each and two cubes of side 3
cm and 4 cm are melted to form one cube of side
(a) 6 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 5 cm
Ans. (a)
3. The surface area of a cube whose volume is 343 cm3 is K cm2, the value of K is
(a) 180
(b) 364
(c) 294
(d) 394
Ans. (c)
4. The bricks of dimensions 25 cm 12.5 cm 7.5 cm required to build a wall 5m
3m 20 m are
(a) 1280
(b) 1285
(c) 1290
(d) 1295
Ans. (a)
5. A closed tea box has 47 cm 47 cm 60 cm internal dimensions, then the total area of tin foil needed for lining it is
(a) 1.57 m
(b) 1.81 m
(c) 1.46 m
(d) 2.10 m
Ans. (a)
6. A wood 1 cm thick required to make a box of dimensions 24 cm 22 cm 17 cm, is
(a) 2276 cm3
(b) 2500 cm3
(c) 2600 cm3
(d) 2376 cm3
Ans. (d)
7. If two cubes, each of side 12 cm are joined end to end, then the surface area of the
resulting cuboid is
(a) 1728 cm2
(b) 1440 cm2
(c) 1445 cm2
(d) 1450 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. The radius of a circle, whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of two circles of
radii 3 cm and 4 cm, is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 5.5 cm
(c) 5.8 cm
(d) 6 cm
Ans. (a)
9. If every side of a cube of volume V is doubled then its volume becomes K V. The
value of K is equa1 to
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 16
Ans. (a)
10. The number of vertices in a cube is
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 12
Ans. (c)
11. If a rectangle of sides 5 cm and 15 cm is to be divided into three squares of equal
area, then the sides of the squares will be
(a) 4cm
(b) 6cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) none
Ans. (d)
12. The perimeter of a right angled triangle is 60 cm and its hypotenuse is 26 cm, then the
area of the triangle is
(a) 120 cm2
(b) 121 cm2
(c) 119 cm2
(d) 125 cm2
Ans. (a)
13. A solid cylinder of glass whose diameter is 1.5 m and height 1 m is melted and
recasted into a sphere, then the radius of the sphere is
(a) 1 m
(b) 0.75 m
(c) 1.25 m
(d) 1.5 m
Ans. (b)
14. The number of bullets of radius 2 cm that can be made from a cube of lead whose
side is 44 cm is
(a) 2540
(b) 2541
(c) 2560
(d) 2575
Ans. (b)
15. If the sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and drawn into a wire of radius 0.2 cm, then
the length of the wire is
(a) 75 cm
(b) 72 cm
(c) 72 cm
(d) 75 cm
Ans. (c)
16. If the volume of a sphere is 4851 cm3, then its surface area is
(a) 1286 cm2
(b) 1386 cm2
(c) 1486 cm2
(d) 1390 cm2
Ans. (a)
17. If the radius of the base of a right circular cone is halved, keeping the height same,
then the ratio of the volume of the reduced cone to that of the original cone is
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2
Ans. (c)
18. The cost of canvas required for a conical tent, of height 8 m and diameter of base 12
m, at the rate of Rs 3.50 per m2 is
(a) Rs 620
(b) Rs 600
(c) Rs 640
(d) Rs 660
Ans. (d)
19. The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 84 cm and diameter 70 cm is
(a) 10010 cm2
(b) 100000 cm2
(c) 10020 cm2
(d) 11000 cm2
Ans. (a)
20. A conical tent of radius of 12 m and height 16 m is to be made, then the cost of
canvas required at the rate Rs 10 per m2 is
(a) Rs 7445
(b) Rs 7543
(c) Rs 7550
(d) Rs 7500
Ans. (b)
Mensuration, area, volume questions for UPSC Bed and other exams
1. A 10 cm deep well with diameter 6 m is dug and the earth spread even to form a
platform 22cm 10cm x cm. The value of x is
(a) 2.2
(b) 1.12
(c) 1.28
(d) 1.3
Ans. (c)
2. Two cubes of side 1 cm each, four cubes of side 2 cm each and two cubes of side 3
cm and 4 cm are melted to form one cube of side
(a) 6 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 5 cm
Ans. (a)
3. The surface area of a cube whose volume is 343 cm3 is K cm2, the value of K is
(a) 180
(b) 364
(c) 294
(d) 394
Ans. (c)
4. The bricks of dimensions 25 cm 12.5 cm 7.5 cm required to build a wall 5m
3m 20 m are
(a) 1280
(b) 1285
(c) 1290
(d) 1295
Ans. (a)
5. A closed tea box has 47 cm 47 cm 60 cm internal dimensions, then the total area of tin foil needed for lining it is
(a) 1.57 m
(b) 1.81 m
(c) 1.46 m
(d) 2.10 m
Ans. (a)
6. A wood 1 cm thick required to make a box of dimensions 24 cm 22 cm 17 cm, is
(a) 2276 cm3
(b) 2500 cm3
(c) 2600 cm3
(d) 2376 cm3
Ans. (d)
7. If two cubes, each of side 12 cm are joined end to end, then the surface area of the
resulting cuboid is
(a) 1728 cm2
(b) 1440 cm2
(c) 1445 cm2
(d) 1450 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. The radius of a circle, whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of two circles of
radii 3 cm and 4 cm, is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 5.5 cm
(c) 5.8 cm
(d) 6 cm
Ans. (a)
9. If every side of a cube of volume V is doubled then its volume becomes K V. The
value of K is equa1 to
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 16
Ans. (a)
10. The number of vertices in a cube is
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 12
Ans. (c)
11. If a rectangle of sides 5 cm and 15 cm is to be divided into three squares of equal
area, then the sides of the squares will be
(a) 4cm
(b) 6cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) none
Ans. (d)
12. The perimeter of a right angled triangle is 60 cm and its hypotenuse is 26 cm, then the
area of the triangle is
(a) 120 cm2
(b) 121 cm2
(c) 119 cm2
(d) 125 cm2
Ans. (a)
13. A solid cylinder of glass whose diameter is 1.5 m and height 1 m is melted and
recasted into a sphere, then the radius of the sphere is
(a) 1 m
(b) 0.75 m
(c) 1.25 m
(d) 1.5 m
Ans. (b)
14. The number of bullets of radius 2 cm that can be made from a cube of lead whose
side is 44 cm is
(a) 2540
(b) 2541
(c) 2560
(d) 2575
Ans. (b)
15. If the sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and drawn into a wire of radius 0.2 cm, then
the length of the wire is
(a) 75 cm
(b) 72 cm
(c) 72 cm
(d) 75 cm
Ans. (c)
16. If the volume of a sphere is 4851 cm3, then its surface area is
(a) 1286 cm2
(b) 1386 cm2
(c) 1486 cm2
(d) 1390 cm2
Ans. (a)
17. If the radius of the base of a right circular cone is halved, keeping the height same,
then the ratio of the volume of the reduced cone to that of the original cone is
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2
Ans. (c)
18. The cost of canvas required for a conical tent, of height 8 m and diameter of base 12
m, at the rate of Rs 3.50 per m2 is
(a) Rs 620
(b) Rs 600
(c) Rs 640
(d) Rs 660
Ans. (d)
19. The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 84 cm and diameter 70 cm is
(a) 10010 cm2
(b) 100000 cm2
(c) 10020 cm2
(d) 11000 cm2
Ans. (a)
20. A conical tent of radius of 12 m and height 16 m is to be made, then the cost of
canvas required at the rate Rs 10 per m2 is
(a) Rs 7445
(b) Rs 7543
(c) Rs 7550
(d) Rs 7500
Ans. (b)
Basic Computer Awareness for Exams Solved MCQ
Basic Computer Awareness for Exams Solved MCQ
20 Mcq Questions on Computer awareness
1. A directory within a directory is called___
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
2. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating
system ?
(1) User interface
(2) Language translator
(3) Platform
(4) Screensaver
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
3. Computer language used on the Internet is --
(1) BASIC
(2) COBOL
(3) Java
(4) Pascal
(5) None of these
ANSWER (3)
4. Which part is the “brain” of the computer ?
(1) CPU
(2) Monitor
(3) RAM
(4) ROM
(5) None of these
ANSWER (1)
5. Help Menu is available at which button ?
(1) End
(2)Start
(3) Turnoff
(4) Restart
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
6. A central computer that holds collections of data
and programs for many PCs, Workstations and
other computers is a(n) ____
(1) Supercomputer
(2) Minicomputer
(3) Laptop
(4) server
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
7. Data that is copied from an application is stored in the
(1) Driver
(2) Terminal
(3) Prompt
(4) Clipboard
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
8. In a spreadsheet program the-----contains related worksheets and documents.
(1) Workbook
(2) Column
(3) Cell
(4) Formula
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
9. ………… is a set of keywords, symbols and a system of rules for constructing statements by which human can
communicate the instructions to be executed by a computer.
(1) A computer program
(2) A programming language
(3) An assemble
(4) Syntax
(5) None of the above
ANSWER (2)
10. This can be another word for program
(1) Software
(2) Disk
(3) Floppy
(4) Hardware
(5) None of these
ANSWER (1)
11. A (n) .......... is a device that electronically processes data, converting it to information.
(1) Algorithm
(2) Computer
(3) Software
(4) Program
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
12. The secret code that protects the programs
(1) Password
(2) Passport
(3) Entry-code
(4) Access code
(5) None of these
ANSWER (1)
13. Where is the disk put in a computer ?
(1) In the modem
(2) In the hard drive
(3) Into the CPU
(4) In the disk drive
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
14. The name that the user gives to a document is
referred to as
(1) Document-name
(2) File name
(3) Name-given
(4) Document-identity
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
15. E-mail (electronic mail) is
(1) An Internet standard that allows users to upload and download files
(2) A real-time typed conversation that takes place on a computer
(3) An online area in which users conduct written discussions about a particular subject
(4) The transmission of messages and files via a computer network
(6) None of the above
ANSWER (4)
16. The information you put into the computer is called
(1) Facts
(2) Data
(3) Files
(4) Directory
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
17. A chat is
(1) An Internet standard that allows users to Upload and download files
(2) A types conversation that takes place on a Computer
(3) An online area in which users conduct Written discussions about a particular subject
(4) The transmission of messages and files via a Computer network
(1) None of the above
ANSWER (2)
18. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer system is
through the use of a
(1) keyboard
(2) Scanner
(3) Printer
(4) Plotter
(5) None of these
ANSWER (1)
19. A keyboard is this kind of device
(1) Black
(2) Input
(3) Output
(4) Word processing
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
20. A collection of related information sorted and
dealt with as a unit is a
(1) Disk
(2) Data
(3) File
(4) Floppy
(5) None of these
ANSWER (3)
20 Mcq Questions on Computer awareness
1. A directory within a directory is called___
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
2. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating
system ?
(1) User interface
(2) Language translator
(3) Platform
(4) Screensaver
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
3. Computer language used on the Internet is --
(1) BASIC
(2) COBOL
(3) Java
(4) Pascal
(5) None of these
ANSWER (3)
4. Which part is the “brain” of the computer ?
(1) CPU
(2) Monitor
(3) RAM
(4) ROM
(5) None of these
ANSWER (1)
5. Help Menu is available at which button ?
(1) End
(2)Start
(3) Turnoff
(4) Restart
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
6. A central computer that holds collections of data
and programs for many PCs, Workstations and
other computers is a(n) ____
(1) Supercomputer
(2) Minicomputer
(3) Laptop
(4) server
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
7. Data that is copied from an application is stored in the
(1) Driver
(2) Terminal
(3) Prompt
(4) Clipboard
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
8. In a spreadsheet program the-----contains related worksheets and documents.
(1) Workbook
(2) Column
(3) Cell
(4) Formula
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
9. ………… is a set of keywords, symbols and a system of rules for constructing statements by which human can
communicate the instructions to be executed by a computer.
(1) A computer program
(2) A programming language
(3) An assemble
(4) Syntax
(5) None of the above
ANSWER (2)
10. This can be another word for program
(1) Software
(2) Disk
(3) Floppy
(4) Hardware
(5) None of these
ANSWER (1)
11. A (n) .......... is a device that electronically processes data, converting it to information.
(1) Algorithm
(2) Computer
(3) Software
(4) Program
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
12. The secret code that protects the programs
(1) Password
(2) Passport
(3) Entry-code
(4) Access code
(5) None of these
ANSWER (1)
13. Where is the disk put in a computer ?
(1) In the modem
(2) In the hard drive
(3) Into the CPU
(4) In the disk drive
(5) None of these
ANSWER (4)
14. The name that the user gives to a document is
referred to as
(1) Document-name
(2) File name
(3) Name-given
(4) Document-identity
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
15. E-mail (electronic mail) is
(1) An Internet standard that allows users to upload and download files
(2) A real-time typed conversation that takes place on a computer
(3) An online area in which users conduct written discussions about a particular subject
(4) The transmission of messages and files via a computer network
(6) None of the above
ANSWER (4)
16. The information you put into the computer is called
(1) Facts
(2) Data
(3) Files
(4) Directory
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
17. A chat is
(1) An Internet standard that allows users to Upload and download files
(2) A types conversation that takes place on a Computer
(3) An online area in which users conduct Written discussions about a particular subject
(4) The transmission of messages and files via a Computer network
(1) None of the above
ANSWER (2)
18. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer system is
through the use of a
(1) keyboard
(2) Scanner
(3) Printer
(4) Plotter
(5) None of these
ANSWER (1)
19. A keyboard is this kind of device
(1) Black
(2) Input
(3) Output
(4) Word processing
(5) None of these
ANSWER (2)
20. A collection of related information sorted and
dealt with as a unit is a
(1) Disk
(2) Data
(3) File
(4) Floppy
(5) None of these
ANSWER (3)
Tuesday, August 30, 2011
Psychology Exam Model paper Objective Questions
Psychology Exam Model paper Objective Questions
Free Sample Objective Questions on Psychology
1 Which of the following statement is FALSE? Incentives—
(A) Are external stimuli acting on the organism?
(B) Direct behavior
(C) Are not motivators of behavior?
(D) Arouse the organism
Ans. (C)
2. Motives cannot be—
(A) Inferred from behavior
(B) Observed directly
(C) Used to explain behavior
(D) Used to predict behavior
Ans. (B)
3. According to double-depletion hypothesis there are two physiological reasons of thirst. They are—
(a) Hypovolemia
(b) Cellular dehydration
(c) Increase in blood sugar
(d) Arousal of osmoreceptors
Reply on these codes—
(A) a and d
(B) b and c
(C) d and b
(D) b and a
Ans. (D)
4. The strongest among the following motives is—
(A) Self assertion
(B) Self preservation
(C) Social approval
(D) Love
Ans. (B)
5. The .body’s tendency to maintain a balance among its internal physiological states and the environment is termed—
(A) Ambivalence
(B) Homeostasis
(C) Homeostasis
(D) Cognitive dissonance
Ans. (C)
6. There are some people—who fulfilled their power needs by using other people. Christie and Geis. 1970 gave them a special
term, which is very famous. The term is—
(A) Machiavellianism
(B) Instrumental aggression
(C) Psychokinesis
(D) Brainstorming
Ans. (A)
7. Which of the following does not represent motives?
(A) Organic needs
(B) Attitudes
(C) Aptitudes
(D) Interests
Ans. (C)
8. The aroused condition of an organism that results from some bodily or tissue deficit is called—
(A) Drive
(B) Motive
(C) Goal
(D) Incentive
Ans. (A)
9. Psychologists believe that when a person is in tension due to high anxiety then in this condition the need for affiliation—.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) remains same
(D) First it increases than decreases
Ans. (B)
10. Injections of insulin will—
(A) Decrease the food intake
(B) Not affect the eating behavior
(C) Increase the food intake
(D) Result in increased activity in the ventromedical cells of hypothalamus
Ans. (C)
11. The most widely known psychologist who studied achievement motivation is—
(A) Atkinson
(B) McClelland and his associates
(C) Hoyenga and Hoyenga
(D) Fernald and Fernald
Ans. (B)
12. Obesity in normal animals can be induced by—
(A) Social factors
(B) External stimuli
(C) Lesions in the ventromedical hypothalamus
(D) All of the above
Ans. (C)
13. A person who is alcoholic, he feels pleasure when he drinks, but when he becomes normal he feels bad. This fact
describes—
(A) Opponent-process theory
(B) Cognitive theory
(C) Incentive theory
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
14. The relationship between fear and affiliation motive is—
(A) Negative
(B) Zero
(C) Only slightly negative
(D) Positive
Ans. (D)
15. The changes in achievement need come about—
(A) 50 years after changes in economic activity.
(B) 50 years before changes in economic activity.
(C) At the same as the changes in economic activity.
(D) 75 years after changes in economic activity.
Ans. (B)
16. Food intake in obese people is markedly affected by—
(A) Fear
(B) Stomach contraction cues
(C) Taste and small cues
(D) All of the above
Ans. (C)
17. Stop talking to someone is an example of—
(A) Verbal-active-direct
(B) Verbal-active-indirect
(C) Verbal-passive indirect
(D) Verbal-passive-direct
Ans. (D)
18. Match list 1 with list 2—
List I
(a) Murray needs theory
(b) Homey theory
(c) McCelland theory
List II
1. Fear of failure
2. Self respect
3. Equality in traits
4. Security
Codes—
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 1
(D) 4 3 1
Ans. (C)
19. Specific hunger result from—
(A) Nutritional deficits
(B) Ethnic and cultural influences
(C) Past experiences
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
20. Correlation of achievement scores and performance in college (college grade) is found to be—
(A) Low and negative
(B) Erratic
(C) Low and positive
(D) High and positive
Ans. (B)
21. People with high need for achievement prefer tasks that are—
(A) Moderately difficult
(B) Not difficult
(C) Very difficult
(D) Impossible
Ans. (A)
22. The things that we learn to fear are—
(A) Primary goals
(B) Primary negative goals
(C) Secondary negative goals
(D) Punishment
Ans. (C)
23. Who said that the behaviors of human beings are motivated and controlled by the instincts of Eros and Thanato?
(A) McDougall
(B) Freud
(C) William James
(D) Woodworth
Ans. (B)
24. Which of the following statement is FALSE? Exploration, competence and self-actualization motives are?
(A) Difficult so satisfy
(B) Part of the human and animal species heritage
(C) Powerful and persistent even in lower animal species
(D) Innate
Ans. (C)
25. Starting from the lowest needs to higher order needs, the needs in Maelow’s hierarchy are—
(A) n. physiological, n. safety, n.belongingness, n. understanding, n. self actualization
(B) n. physiological, n. safety, n. belongingness, n. esteem, n. self actualization
(C) n. physiological, n. belongingness, n. safety, n. esteem, n. self actualisation.
(D) n. safety, n. esteem, n. understanding, n. control, n. self actualization
Ans. (B)
Free Sample Objective Questions on Psychology
1 Which of the following statement is FALSE? Incentives—
(A) Are external stimuli acting on the organism?
(B) Direct behavior
(C) Are not motivators of behavior?
(D) Arouse the organism
Ans. (C)
2. Motives cannot be—
(A) Inferred from behavior
(B) Observed directly
(C) Used to explain behavior
(D) Used to predict behavior
Ans. (B)
3. According to double-depletion hypothesis there are two physiological reasons of thirst. They are—
(a) Hypovolemia
(b) Cellular dehydration
(c) Increase in blood sugar
(d) Arousal of osmoreceptors
Reply on these codes—
(A) a and d
(B) b and c
(C) d and b
(D) b and a
Ans. (D)
4. The strongest among the following motives is—
(A) Self assertion
(B) Self preservation
(C) Social approval
(D) Love
Ans. (B)
5. The .body’s tendency to maintain a balance among its internal physiological states and the environment is termed—
(A) Ambivalence
(B) Homeostasis
(C) Homeostasis
(D) Cognitive dissonance
Ans. (C)
6. There are some people—who fulfilled their power needs by using other people. Christie and Geis. 1970 gave them a special
term, which is very famous. The term is—
(A) Machiavellianism
(B) Instrumental aggression
(C) Psychokinesis
(D) Brainstorming
Ans. (A)
7. Which of the following does not represent motives?
(A) Organic needs
(B) Attitudes
(C) Aptitudes
(D) Interests
Ans. (C)
8. The aroused condition of an organism that results from some bodily or tissue deficit is called—
(A) Drive
(B) Motive
(C) Goal
(D) Incentive
Ans. (A)
9. Psychologists believe that when a person is in tension due to high anxiety then in this condition the need for affiliation—.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) remains same
(D) First it increases than decreases
Ans. (B)
10. Injections of insulin will—
(A) Decrease the food intake
(B) Not affect the eating behavior
(C) Increase the food intake
(D) Result in increased activity in the ventromedical cells of hypothalamus
Ans. (C)
11. The most widely known psychologist who studied achievement motivation is—
(A) Atkinson
(B) McClelland and his associates
(C) Hoyenga and Hoyenga
(D) Fernald and Fernald
Ans. (B)
12. Obesity in normal animals can be induced by—
(A) Social factors
(B) External stimuli
(C) Lesions in the ventromedical hypothalamus
(D) All of the above
Ans. (C)
13. A person who is alcoholic, he feels pleasure when he drinks, but when he becomes normal he feels bad. This fact
describes—
(A) Opponent-process theory
(B) Cognitive theory
(C) Incentive theory
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
14. The relationship between fear and affiliation motive is—
(A) Negative
(B) Zero
(C) Only slightly negative
(D) Positive
Ans. (D)
15. The changes in achievement need come about—
(A) 50 years after changes in economic activity.
(B) 50 years before changes in economic activity.
(C) At the same as the changes in economic activity.
(D) 75 years after changes in economic activity.
Ans. (B)
16. Food intake in obese people is markedly affected by—
(A) Fear
(B) Stomach contraction cues
(C) Taste and small cues
(D) All of the above
Ans. (C)
17. Stop talking to someone is an example of—
(A) Verbal-active-direct
(B) Verbal-active-indirect
(C) Verbal-passive indirect
(D) Verbal-passive-direct
Ans. (D)
18. Match list 1 with list 2—
List I
(a) Murray needs theory
(b) Homey theory
(c) McCelland theory
List II
1. Fear of failure
2. Self respect
3. Equality in traits
4. Security
Codes—
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 1
(D) 4 3 1
Ans. (C)
19. Specific hunger result from—
(A) Nutritional deficits
(B) Ethnic and cultural influences
(C) Past experiences
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
20. Correlation of achievement scores and performance in college (college grade) is found to be—
(A) Low and negative
(B) Erratic
(C) Low and positive
(D) High and positive
Ans. (B)
21. People with high need for achievement prefer tasks that are—
(A) Moderately difficult
(B) Not difficult
(C) Very difficult
(D) Impossible
Ans. (A)
22. The things that we learn to fear are—
(A) Primary goals
(B) Primary negative goals
(C) Secondary negative goals
(D) Punishment
Ans. (C)
23. Who said that the behaviors of human beings are motivated and controlled by the instincts of Eros and Thanato?
(A) McDougall
(B) Freud
(C) William James
(D) Woodworth
Ans. (B)
24. Which of the following statement is FALSE? Exploration, competence and self-actualization motives are?
(A) Difficult so satisfy
(B) Part of the human and animal species heritage
(C) Powerful and persistent even in lower animal species
(D) Innate
Ans. (C)
25. Starting from the lowest needs to higher order needs, the needs in Maelow’s hierarchy are—
(A) n. physiological, n. safety, n.belongingness, n. understanding, n. self actualization
(B) n. physiological, n. safety, n. belongingness, n. esteem, n. self actualization
(C) n. physiological, n. belongingness, n. safety, n. esteem, n. self actualisation.
(D) n. safety, n. esteem, n. understanding, n. control, n. self actualization
Ans. (B)
UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper:Psychology
UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper:Psychology
UGC NET Psychology Sample Questions with answers
1. Memory and retention test reveal two different aspect of learning according to—
(A) Michael J. Howe
(B) Underwood
(C) Adams
(D) Banks
Ans. (B)
2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) When forgetting does occur, most of the loss occurs soon after learning
(B) There is marked forgetting of more technical and advanced scientific material that in little used in everyday life.
(C) Forgetting is slower but steady after the initial fall which is very fast
(D) The material overlearnt is never forgotten.
(E) Material that has been learned and seemingly forgotten is seldom completely forgotten
Ans. (D)
3. Recall of more pleasant items of information if better than that of the less pleasant items. Which of the following is related to this?
(A) Ward-Hovland phenomenon
(B) Pallyana principles
(C) Cue-dependent recall
(D) Trace-dependent recall
Ans. (B)
4. The most popular memory span material consist of—
(A) Words
(B) Figures
(C) Numbers
(D) Objects
Ans. (C)
5. Memory span is affected by—
(A) Sex
(B) Age
(C) Neither by age nor sex
(D) Both by sex and age
Ans. (D)
6. Which is more widely accepted conclusion of experimental studies on memory?
(A) Memory is a. reconstructive mental process. (Bartlett)
(B) Memory is a reproductive mental process. (Ebbinghaus)
(C) Memory is information stored and maintained permanently in the human brain
(D) Memory is all that is in the brain and can be retrieved.
Ans. (A)
7. With intermittent reinforcement—
(A) Learning is slow
(B) Both learning and forgetting are slow
(C) Forgetting is slow
(D) Both learning and forgetting are fast
Ans. (C)
8. Forgetting is—
(A) An active mental process
(B) A passive mental process
(C) Neither an active nor a passive mental process
(D) An active mental process in some cases and a passive mental process in other
Ans. (D)
9. Retrieval from LTM takes the form of—
(A) Recall
(B) Recognition
(C) Both recall and recognition
(D) Neither of these
Ans. (C)
10. Experiment on visual coding was done by—
(A) Shulman
(B) Posner and Keela
(C) Daberman
(D) Wickens
Ans. (B)
11. According to Woodworth and Scholsberg (1954) memory span method the size of STM is found to be—
(A) 7 ± 2 or 5 to 9
(B) 5 to 13
(C) 2 to 9
(D) 5 to 11
Ans. (A)
12. Learned relationships between stimuli and responses such as stopping the vehicle immediately after seeing the red light are an
Example of—
(A) Episodic memory
(B) Short term memory
(C) Procedural memory
(D) Semantic memory
Ans. (C)
13. All of the following are kinds of long term memory according to Tulving (1972) except—
(A) Sensory memory
(B) Episodic memory
(C) Semantic memory
(D) Procedural
Ans. (A)
14. What is meant by ‘reminiscence’?
(A) Recalling something learned in the past long back.
(B) Recognizing something which was not learned well.
(C) Recalling something intuitionally
(D) A tendency for memory to persist without practice (i.e., stopping the activity as soon as the Childs near mastery)
Ans. (D)
15. Forgetting as an ordinary process takes place because of—
(A) Emotional blocks
(B) Neural disturbances
(C) Atrophy through disuse
(D) Some negative emotions
Ans. (C)
16 Motivation results in—
(A) Goal-directed behavior
(B) Undirected behavior
(C) Excited behavior
(D) Problem solving behavior
Ans. (A)
17 The contractions of muscles in the stomach wall DO NOT—
(A) Activate cells in lateral hypothalamus
(B) Influence hypothalamic control of immediate appetite
(C) Activate thermo receptors in the brain
(D) Result in hunger pangs
Ans. (C)
18. Psychologists have tried to explain the nature of ‘motivation’ by formulating a concept ‘motivation cycle’ which includes all
of the following except—
(A) Need
(B) Drive
(C) Goal
(D) Propensity
Ans. (D)
19. For the human beings the most important triggers of sexual drive are—
(A) Sensory stimuli
(B) Adrenaline level
(C) Hormone levels
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
20. The drive-reduction theory of motivation explained behavior in terms of—
(A) Restoration of physiological balance in the body.
(B) Internal drives pulling the organism into activity
(C) External stimuli acting as motivators of behavior
(D) Both (A) and (B) but not (C)
Ans. (D)
21. Cannon propounded a theory of thirst in 1932 which is known as—
(A) Cannon’s physiological theory of thirst
(B) Cannon’s inborn theory of thirst.
(C) Cannon’s biological theory of thirst.
(D) Cannon’s theory of thirst.
Ans. (D)
22. A motive or drive give rise to behavior that is—
(A) Goal oriented
(B) Instinctive in nature
(C) Pleasure seeking
(D) Pain avoiding
Ans. (A)
23. All of the following are characteristic of REM sleep except—
(A) In this the individual sees dream and, hence, cannot have deep sleep.
(B) Its beginning studies were made by Aserinsky and Kleitman in 1953.
(C) In children 50% of sleep is REM sleep, in the young people it remains only 20% of the total sleep.
(D) Percentage of REM sleep decreases with growing age.
(E) In this eyes remain closed and eye ball do not move.
Ans. (E)
24. Sensory stimuli can arouse the following drive states—
(A) Hunger
(B) Pain
(C) Sexual drive state
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
25. Motivation could be described as—
(A) An instinctual response to a need
(B) A modifier of behavior
(C) An acquired response to a need
(D) An energizer of behavior
Ans. (D)
UGC NET Psychology Sample Questions with answers
1. Memory and retention test reveal two different aspect of learning according to—
(A) Michael J. Howe
(B) Underwood
(C) Adams
(D) Banks
Ans. (B)
2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) When forgetting does occur, most of the loss occurs soon after learning
(B) There is marked forgetting of more technical and advanced scientific material that in little used in everyday life.
(C) Forgetting is slower but steady after the initial fall which is very fast
(D) The material overlearnt is never forgotten.
(E) Material that has been learned and seemingly forgotten is seldom completely forgotten
Ans. (D)
3. Recall of more pleasant items of information if better than that of the less pleasant items. Which of the following is related to this?
(A) Ward-Hovland phenomenon
(B) Pallyana principles
(C) Cue-dependent recall
(D) Trace-dependent recall
Ans. (B)
4. The most popular memory span material consist of—
(A) Words
(B) Figures
(C) Numbers
(D) Objects
Ans. (C)
5. Memory span is affected by—
(A) Sex
(B) Age
(C) Neither by age nor sex
(D) Both by sex and age
Ans. (D)
6. Which is more widely accepted conclusion of experimental studies on memory?
(A) Memory is a. reconstructive mental process. (Bartlett)
(B) Memory is a reproductive mental process. (Ebbinghaus)
(C) Memory is information stored and maintained permanently in the human brain
(D) Memory is all that is in the brain and can be retrieved.
Ans. (A)
7. With intermittent reinforcement—
(A) Learning is slow
(B) Both learning and forgetting are slow
(C) Forgetting is slow
(D) Both learning and forgetting are fast
Ans. (C)
8. Forgetting is—
(A) An active mental process
(B) A passive mental process
(C) Neither an active nor a passive mental process
(D) An active mental process in some cases and a passive mental process in other
Ans. (D)
9. Retrieval from LTM takes the form of—
(A) Recall
(B) Recognition
(C) Both recall and recognition
(D) Neither of these
Ans. (C)
10. Experiment on visual coding was done by—
(A) Shulman
(B) Posner and Keela
(C) Daberman
(D) Wickens
Ans. (B)
11. According to Woodworth and Scholsberg (1954) memory span method the size of STM is found to be—
(A) 7 ± 2 or 5 to 9
(B) 5 to 13
(C) 2 to 9
(D) 5 to 11
Ans. (A)
12. Learned relationships between stimuli and responses such as stopping the vehicle immediately after seeing the red light are an
Example of—
(A) Episodic memory
(B) Short term memory
(C) Procedural memory
(D) Semantic memory
Ans. (C)
13. All of the following are kinds of long term memory according to Tulving (1972) except—
(A) Sensory memory
(B) Episodic memory
(C) Semantic memory
(D) Procedural
Ans. (A)
14. What is meant by ‘reminiscence’?
(A) Recalling something learned in the past long back.
(B) Recognizing something which was not learned well.
(C) Recalling something intuitionally
(D) A tendency for memory to persist without practice (i.e., stopping the activity as soon as the Childs near mastery)
Ans. (D)
15. Forgetting as an ordinary process takes place because of—
(A) Emotional blocks
(B) Neural disturbances
(C) Atrophy through disuse
(D) Some negative emotions
Ans. (C)
16 Motivation results in—
(A) Goal-directed behavior
(B) Undirected behavior
(C) Excited behavior
(D) Problem solving behavior
Ans. (A)
17 The contractions of muscles in the stomach wall DO NOT—
(A) Activate cells in lateral hypothalamus
(B) Influence hypothalamic control of immediate appetite
(C) Activate thermo receptors in the brain
(D) Result in hunger pangs
Ans. (C)
18. Psychologists have tried to explain the nature of ‘motivation’ by formulating a concept ‘motivation cycle’ which includes all
of the following except—
(A) Need
(B) Drive
(C) Goal
(D) Propensity
Ans. (D)
19. For the human beings the most important triggers of sexual drive are—
(A) Sensory stimuli
(B) Adrenaline level
(C) Hormone levels
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
20. The drive-reduction theory of motivation explained behavior in terms of—
(A) Restoration of physiological balance in the body.
(B) Internal drives pulling the organism into activity
(C) External stimuli acting as motivators of behavior
(D) Both (A) and (B) but not (C)
Ans. (D)
21. Cannon propounded a theory of thirst in 1932 which is known as—
(A) Cannon’s physiological theory of thirst
(B) Cannon’s inborn theory of thirst.
(C) Cannon’s biological theory of thirst.
(D) Cannon’s theory of thirst.
Ans. (D)
22. A motive or drive give rise to behavior that is—
(A) Goal oriented
(B) Instinctive in nature
(C) Pleasure seeking
(D) Pain avoiding
Ans. (A)
23. All of the following are characteristic of REM sleep except—
(A) In this the individual sees dream and, hence, cannot have deep sleep.
(B) Its beginning studies were made by Aserinsky and Kleitman in 1953.
(C) In children 50% of sleep is REM sleep, in the young people it remains only 20% of the total sleep.
(D) Percentage of REM sleep decreases with growing age.
(E) In this eyes remain closed and eye ball do not move.
Ans. (E)
24. Sensory stimuli can arouse the following drive states—
(A) Hunger
(B) Pain
(C) Sexual drive state
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
25. Motivation could be described as—
(A) An instinctual response to a need
(B) A modifier of behavior
(C) An acquired response to a need
(D) An energizer of behavior
Ans. (D)
Biology Gk Solved objective Questions
Biology Gk Solved objective Questions
Biology - General Knowledge Questions and Answers
Biology Gk Soved objective Questions
1. Major food crops of the world belong to
(a) leguminosae
(b) gramineae
(c) solanaceae
(d) cruciferae
Ans. (b)
2. An American plant, which had become a troublesome waterweed in India is
(a) Typha latifolia
(b) Trapa bispinosa
(c) Cyprus rotundus
d) Eichhornia crassipes
Ans. (d)
3. The major drawback of DDT as a pesticide is that
(a) it is significantly less effective than other pesticides
(b) its cost of production is high
(c) it is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature
(d) Organisms at once develop resistance to it
Ans. (c)
4. Autotrophs and heterotrophs differ in
(a) How they obtain their carbon
(b) Whether they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic
(c) How they reproduce, sexually or asexually
(d) Whether they use chemicals or light as a source of energy
Ans. (a)
5. Removal of topsoil by wind and water is called
(a) soil consecration
(b) Soil binding
(c) Soil erosion
(d) Mulching
Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following is an example of a weed of kharif season that infest maize crop?
(a) Amaranthus (chauli)
(b) Nut grass (motha)
(c) Sorghum (jangali jowar)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
7. Green manuring enhances crop yield by
(a) 5—10%
(b) 15—25%
(c) 30—50%
(d) 60—75%
Ans. (c)
8. Nitrogen content of urea is
(a) 46%
(b) 36%
(c) 26%
(d) 56%
Ans. (a)
9. The science of improving crop varieties is called
(a) Hybridization
(b) Selection
(c) Introduction
(d) Plant breeding
Ans. (d)
10. Growing two or more crops but in definite row pattern is known as
(a) Intercropping
(b) Crop rotation
(c) Mixed farming
(d) Mixed cropping
Ans. (a)
11. Green revolution refers to
(a) Maintaining soil fertility
(b) Use of green plants for covering the earth
(c) Development of new crop varieties which helped to overcome hunger
(d) Growing green plants to establish balance of nature
Ans. (c)
12. Recognition for bringing green revolution to India goes to
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) Gurdev S. Khush
Ans. (a)
13. The Jersey bull used for cross breeding is exotic variety from
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Switzerland
(d) Holland
Ans. (a)
14. Fever, inflammation of the mucous membranes, particularly the intestines, discharges from the eyes and nose, dehydration, and skin eruptions on the back and flanks; death comes after four to eight days. These are the major symptoms of
(a) Rinderpest
(b) Anthrax
(c) Foot and Mouth Disease
(d) Cholera
Ans. (a)
15. Sharbati Sonora variety of wheat was obtained by
(a) Crossing with wild varieties of wheat
(b) Hybridization between wild varieties of wheat
(c) X-ray treatment
(d) Irradiation of Sonora 64 with gamma rays
Ans. (d)
16. Horti-pastoral farming refers to
(a) Growing food and fodder
(b) Growing mixed crops
(c) Growing fodder and rearing cattle, etc.
(d) Growing fruit trees and fodder simultaneously
Ans. (d)
17. Which is the oldest breeding method?
(a) Hybridization
(b) Selection
(c) Mutation
(d) Introduction
Ans. (d)
18. The technique in which the developing embryo (at definite stage) from a pregnant superior breed is removed and transferred to another female with inferior characters, in whose body further development till birth takes place
(a) Embryo transfer
(b) Artificial insemination
(c) Protoplast fusion
(d) Cloning
Ans. (a)
19. Silver Revolution is associated with the increase in the production of
(a) Meat
(b) Cereals
(c) Eggs
(d) Milk
Ans. (c)
20. Catla and rohu are examples of
(a) Freshwater fish
(b) Marine fish
(c) Brackish water fish
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
21. The IPN (Infectious Pancreatic Necrosis) and VMS (Viral Hemorrhagic Septicemia) are well known infectious diseases of
(a) Fish
(b) Cattle
(c) Poultry
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
22. The production of useful aquatic plants and animals like prawns, fish, lobsters, crabs, molluscs, etc., using various types of water resources is called
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Pisciculture
(c) Silviculture
(d) Silver revolution
Ans. (a)
23. Mehsana and Jaffarabadi are examples of
(a) Indian breeds of buffaloes
(b) Breeds of cow
(c) Breeds of sheep
(d) Indian breeds of goat
Ans. (a)
24. Bombay duck and hilsa are examples of
(a) Freshwater fish
(b) Marine fish
(c) Breeds of sheep
(d) Breeds of ducks
Ans. (b)
25. Human genome contains about
(a) 10,000 nucleotides
(b) 10,000 genes
(c) 6 billion nucleotides
(d) 6 billion genes
Ans. (c)
Biology - General Knowledge Questions and Answers
Biology Gk Soved objective Questions
1. Major food crops of the world belong to
(a) leguminosae
(b) gramineae
(c) solanaceae
(d) cruciferae
Ans. (b)
2. An American plant, which had become a troublesome waterweed in India is
(a) Typha latifolia
(b) Trapa bispinosa
(c) Cyprus rotundus
d) Eichhornia crassipes
Ans. (d)
3. The major drawback of DDT as a pesticide is that
(a) it is significantly less effective than other pesticides
(b) its cost of production is high
(c) it is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature
(d) Organisms at once develop resistance to it
Ans. (c)
4. Autotrophs and heterotrophs differ in
(a) How they obtain their carbon
(b) Whether they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic
(c) How they reproduce, sexually or asexually
(d) Whether they use chemicals or light as a source of energy
Ans. (a)
5. Removal of topsoil by wind and water is called
(a) soil consecration
(b) Soil binding
(c) Soil erosion
(d) Mulching
Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following is an example of a weed of kharif season that infest maize crop?
(a) Amaranthus (chauli)
(b) Nut grass (motha)
(c) Sorghum (jangali jowar)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
7. Green manuring enhances crop yield by
(a) 5—10%
(b) 15—25%
(c) 30—50%
(d) 60—75%
Ans. (c)
8. Nitrogen content of urea is
(a) 46%
(b) 36%
(c) 26%
(d) 56%
Ans. (a)
9. The science of improving crop varieties is called
(a) Hybridization
(b) Selection
(c) Introduction
(d) Plant breeding
Ans. (d)
10. Growing two or more crops but in definite row pattern is known as
(a) Intercropping
(b) Crop rotation
(c) Mixed farming
(d) Mixed cropping
Ans. (a)
11. Green revolution refers to
(a) Maintaining soil fertility
(b) Use of green plants for covering the earth
(c) Development of new crop varieties which helped to overcome hunger
(d) Growing green plants to establish balance of nature
Ans. (c)
12. Recognition for bringing green revolution to India goes to
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) Gurdev S. Khush
Ans. (a)
13. The Jersey bull used for cross breeding is exotic variety from
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Switzerland
(d) Holland
Ans. (a)
14. Fever, inflammation of the mucous membranes, particularly the intestines, discharges from the eyes and nose, dehydration, and skin eruptions on the back and flanks; death comes after four to eight days. These are the major symptoms of
(a) Rinderpest
(b) Anthrax
(c) Foot and Mouth Disease
(d) Cholera
Ans. (a)
15. Sharbati Sonora variety of wheat was obtained by
(a) Crossing with wild varieties of wheat
(b) Hybridization between wild varieties of wheat
(c) X-ray treatment
(d) Irradiation of Sonora 64 with gamma rays
Ans. (d)
16. Horti-pastoral farming refers to
(a) Growing food and fodder
(b) Growing mixed crops
(c) Growing fodder and rearing cattle, etc.
(d) Growing fruit trees and fodder simultaneously
Ans. (d)
17. Which is the oldest breeding method?
(a) Hybridization
(b) Selection
(c) Mutation
(d) Introduction
Ans. (d)
18. The technique in which the developing embryo (at definite stage) from a pregnant superior breed is removed and transferred to another female with inferior characters, in whose body further development till birth takes place
(a) Embryo transfer
(b) Artificial insemination
(c) Protoplast fusion
(d) Cloning
Ans. (a)
19. Silver Revolution is associated with the increase in the production of
(a) Meat
(b) Cereals
(c) Eggs
(d) Milk
Ans. (c)
20. Catla and rohu are examples of
(a) Freshwater fish
(b) Marine fish
(c) Brackish water fish
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
21. The IPN (Infectious Pancreatic Necrosis) and VMS (Viral Hemorrhagic Septicemia) are well known infectious diseases of
(a) Fish
(b) Cattle
(c) Poultry
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
22. The production of useful aquatic plants and animals like prawns, fish, lobsters, crabs, molluscs, etc., using various types of water resources is called
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Pisciculture
(c) Silviculture
(d) Silver revolution
Ans. (a)
23. Mehsana and Jaffarabadi are examples of
(a) Indian breeds of buffaloes
(b) Breeds of cow
(c) Breeds of sheep
(d) Indian breeds of goat
Ans. (a)
24. Bombay duck and hilsa are examples of
(a) Freshwater fish
(b) Marine fish
(c) Breeds of sheep
(d) Breeds of ducks
Ans. (b)
25. Human genome contains about
(a) 10,000 nucleotides
(b) 10,000 genes
(c) 6 billion nucleotides
(d) 6 billion genes
Ans. (c)
Nursing Aptitude Test Free Sample Questions
Nursing Aptitude Test Free Sample Questions
Nursing Entrance Test Practice Questions
1. Wrinkling in old age is due to
(a) Collagen
(b) Myosin
(c) Keratin
(d) Actin
Ans. (a)
2. Which one of the following directly helps in keeping the body warm?
(a) Sweat glands
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Connective tissue
(d) Hairs
Ans. (b)
3. The fibrous tissue, which connects the two bones, is
(a) Connective tissue
(b) Ligament
(c) Tendon
(d) Adipose tissue
Ans. (b)
4. Bone forming cells are
(a) Osteoblasts
(b) Osteoclasts
(c) Chondroblasts
(d) Chondroclasts
Ans. (a)
5. A man was brought up at sea level while his brother spent all his life at an altitude of 10,000 feet. The latter will have
(a) More active bone marrow
(b) Lower blood pressure
(c) Less sub dermal fat
(d) More active sweat glands
Ans. (a)
6. Triceps and biceps are examples of
(a) Antagonistic muscles
(b) Involuntary muscles
(c) Sphincter muscles
(d) Smooth muscles
Ans. (a)
7. A bone is distinguished from cartilage by the presence of
(a) Collagen
(b) Lymph vessels
(c) Blood vessels
(d) Haversian canals
Ans. (d)
8. Which one of these is a kind of tissue?
(a) Lung
(b) Kidney
(c) Blood
(d) Pancreas
Ans. (c)
9. Nissl’s granules are found in cyton of nerve cells. These have affinity for basic dyes. The granules are made up of
(a) Proteins
(b) DNA
(c) Amino acids
(d) RNA
Ans. (d)
10. In camel, erythrocytes are
(a) Oval and nucleated
(b) Circular, biconcave and nucleated
(c) Oval and non-nucleated
(d) Circular, biconcave, non-nucleated
Ans. (b)
11. Iron in hemoglobin exists as
(a) Unionized iron atom
(b) Ferric ions only
(c) Ferrous ions only
(d) Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenate state of the heme moiety
Ans. (c)
12. Red cell count is carried out by
(a) Haemocytometer
(b) Haemoglobinometer
(c) Sphygmomanometer
(d) Electrocardiogram
Ans. (a)
13. Striated muscles are found in
(a) gall bladder
(b) Wall of bronchi
(c) Leg muscles
(d) Lungs
Ans. (c)
14. Smooth muscle fibers are
(a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, non striated, multinucleate and involuntary
(b) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, uninucleate and involuntary
(c) Cylindrical, striated, unbranched, multinucleate and voluntary
(d) Cylindrical, unbranched, non-striated, multinucleate and involuntary
Ans. (b)
15. In human, increased heat production is achieved most rapidly by increase the activity of the
(a) sweat gland
(b) Liver
(c) Skeletal muscle
(d) Brain
Ans. (c)
16. Muscles, which are immune to fatigue, are
(a) Unstriped muscles
(b) Cardiac muscles
(c) Jaw muscles
(d) Skeleton muscles
Ans. (b)
17. Ozone day is
(a) January 30
(b) December 25
(c) April 21
(d) September 16
Ans. (d)
18. Cadmium pollution is associated with disease
(a) itai-itai
(b) anaemia
(c) minamata
(d) Pneumoconiosis
Ans. (a)
19. Schwann cells and nodes of Ranvier are found in
(a) Neurons
(b) Chondroblasts
(c) Osteoblasts
(d) Gland cells
Ans. (a)
20. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
(a) India
(b) Africa
(c) Antarctica
(d) Europe
Ans. (c)
21. Afferent nerve fiber carries impulses from
(a) Effectors to central nervous system
(b) Receptor to central nervous system
(c) Central nervous system to muscle
(d) Central nervous system to receptors
Ans. (b)
22. Among pollutants that has the most lasting effect
(a) carbon monoxide
(b) pesticides
(c) sulphur dioxide
(d) Smoke from chimneys
Ans. (b)
23. Most of the human neurons are
(a) Multipolar
(b) Bipolar
(c) Univocal
(d) Pseudo-unipolar
Ans. (a)
24. Thermal pollution is more prevalent near
(a) Hot water springs
(b) Coal based power plants
(c) temperate zones
(d) tropical zones
Ans. (b)
25. Some effects of SO2 and its transformation products on plants include
(a) Chlorophyll destruction
(b) Plasmolysis
(c) Golgi body destruction
(d) Exosmosis
Ans. (a)
Nursing Entrance Test Practice Questions
1. Wrinkling in old age is due to
(a) Collagen
(b) Myosin
(c) Keratin
(d) Actin
Ans. (a)
2. Which one of the following directly helps in keeping the body warm?
(a) Sweat glands
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Connective tissue
(d) Hairs
Ans. (b)
3. The fibrous tissue, which connects the two bones, is
(a) Connective tissue
(b) Ligament
(c) Tendon
(d) Adipose tissue
Ans. (b)
4. Bone forming cells are
(a) Osteoblasts
(b) Osteoclasts
(c) Chondroblasts
(d) Chondroclasts
Ans. (a)
5. A man was brought up at sea level while his brother spent all his life at an altitude of 10,000 feet. The latter will have
(a) More active bone marrow
(b) Lower blood pressure
(c) Less sub dermal fat
(d) More active sweat glands
Ans. (a)
6. Triceps and biceps are examples of
(a) Antagonistic muscles
(b) Involuntary muscles
(c) Sphincter muscles
(d) Smooth muscles
Ans. (a)
7. A bone is distinguished from cartilage by the presence of
(a) Collagen
(b) Lymph vessels
(c) Blood vessels
(d) Haversian canals
Ans. (d)
8. Which one of these is a kind of tissue?
(a) Lung
(b) Kidney
(c) Blood
(d) Pancreas
Ans. (c)
9. Nissl’s granules are found in cyton of nerve cells. These have affinity for basic dyes. The granules are made up of
(a) Proteins
(b) DNA
(c) Amino acids
(d) RNA
Ans. (d)
10. In camel, erythrocytes are
(a) Oval and nucleated
(b) Circular, biconcave and nucleated
(c) Oval and non-nucleated
(d) Circular, biconcave, non-nucleated
Ans. (b)
11. Iron in hemoglobin exists as
(a) Unionized iron atom
(b) Ferric ions only
(c) Ferrous ions only
(d) Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenate state of the heme moiety
Ans. (c)
12. Red cell count is carried out by
(a) Haemocytometer
(b) Haemoglobinometer
(c) Sphygmomanometer
(d) Electrocardiogram
Ans. (a)
13. Striated muscles are found in
(a) gall bladder
(b) Wall of bronchi
(c) Leg muscles
(d) Lungs
Ans. (c)
14. Smooth muscle fibers are
(a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, non striated, multinucleate and involuntary
(b) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, uninucleate and involuntary
(c) Cylindrical, striated, unbranched, multinucleate and voluntary
(d) Cylindrical, unbranched, non-striated, multinucleate and involuntary
Ans. (b)
15. In human, increased heat production is achieved most rapidly by increase the activity of the
(a) sweat gland
(b) Liver
(c) Skeletal muscle
(d) Brain
Ans. (c)
16. Muscles, which are immune to fatigue, are
(a) Unstriped muscles
(b) Cardiac muscles
(c) Jaw muscles
(d) Skeleton muscles
Ans. (b)
17. Ozone day is
(a) January 30
(b) December 25
(c) April 21
(d) September 16
Ans. (d)
18. Cadmium pollution is associated with disease
(a) itai-itai
(b) anaemia
(c) minamata
(d) Pneumoconiosis
Ans. (a)
19. Schwann cells and nodes of Ranvier are found in
(a) Neurons
(b) Chondroblasts
(c) Osteoblasts
(d) Gland cells
Ans. (a)
20. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
(a) India
(b) Africa
(c) Antarctica
(d) Europe
Ans. (c)
21. Afferent nerve fiber carries impulses from
(a) Effectors to central nervous system
(b) Receptor to central nervous system
(c) Central nervous system to muscle
(d) Central nervous system to receptors
Ans. (b)
22. Among pollutants that has the most lasting effect
(a) carbon monoxide
(b) pesticides
(c) sulphur dioxide
(d) Smoke from chimneys
Ans. (b)
23. Most of the human neurons are
(a) Multipolar
(b) Bipolar
(c) Univocal
(d) Pseudo-unipolar
Ans. (a)
24. Thermal pollution is more prevalent near
(a) Hot water springs
(b) Coal based power plants
(c) temperate zones
(d) tropical zones
Ans. (b)
25. Some effects of SO2 and its transformation products on plants include
(a) Chlorophyll destruction
(b) Plasmolysis
(c) Golgi body destruction
(d) Exosmosis
Ans. (a)
Free Objective Solved Questions For Nursing jobs Exams
Free Objective Solved Questions For Nursing jobs Exams
Biology model Question papers with Answers for Nursing jobs
1. Haversian system is typically found in bones of
(a) Fishes
(b) Ayes
(c) Reptiles
(d) Mammals
Ans. (d)
2. The actively dividing layer of columnar cells in the epidermis of man is called as the
(a) Stratum granulosum
(b) Stratum lucidum
(c) Stratum malpighi
(d) Stratum comeum
Ans. (c)
3. The bone of a mammal contains Haversian canals, which are connected by transverse canals known as
(a) Semicircular canals
(b) Inguinal canals
(c) Volkmann’s canals
(d) Bidder’s canals
Ans. (c)
4. Horns of most mammals are composed of
(a) Bones
(b) Cartilage
(c) Keratin
(d) Chitin
Ans. (c)
5. Blood is
(a) Acidic
(b) Alkaline
(c) Variable
(d) Neutral
Ans. (b)
6. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was put forth by
(a) De Vries
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) Galton
Ans. (b)
7. Mammalian erythrocytes are
(a) circular
(b) Biconcave
(c) Non-nucleated
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
8. Gennplasm theory was given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Weismann
(c) Darwin
(d) De Vries
Ans. (b)
9. Life span of RBC is
(a) 50 days
(b) 75 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 100 days
Ans. (c)
10. The biggest opponent of Lamarck was
(a) G. Cuvier
(b) A. Weismann
(c) I. Pavlov
(d) Kamrer
Ans. (b)
11. Basic idea of organic evolution is
(a) Cosmic evolution
(b) Descent with modification
(c) Special creation
(d) Spontaneous generation
Ans. (b)
12. All of the following influenced Dw1N as he synthesised the concept of natural selection except
(a) The finches of the Galapagos
(b) Malthus’s essay on the principle of population
(c) The results of artificial selection
(d) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
Ans. (d)
13. The Galapagos Islands are associated with the visit of
(a) Jean Lamarck
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Gregor Mendel
(d) Alfred Wallace
Ans. (b)
14. Which one of the following blood pigments contains copper?
(a) Haemoerythrin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Chlorocruorin
(d) Haemoglobin
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following was most influential upon Darwin’s formulation of theory of natural selection?
(a) De Vries concept of mutation
(b) Wallace’s paper on survival
(c) Malthus’s essay on population
(d) Lamarck’s on inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following tissues in a human being uses the greatest amount of energy?
(a) Vascular tissue
(b) Muscular tissue
(c) Nervous tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue
Ans. (b)
17. ‘Survival of the fittest’ was used by
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(c) Hugo DeVries
(d) Herbert Spencer
Ans. (d)
18. Striped muscle fiber has
(a) Many nuclei
(b) Two nuclei
(c) No nuclei
(d) One nucleus
Ans. (a)
19. After observing the variations HUGO DE VRIES first of all described the mutation in
(a) Oenothera lamarl.4ana
(b) Neurospora crassa
(c) Pisum sativum
(d) Drosophila melanogaster
Ans. (a)
20. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) Lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)
21. When we lift hand
(a) The triceps contracts and the biceps relaxes
(b) The biceps contracts and the triceps relaxes
(c) Both biceps and triceps contract
(d) Both biceps and triceps relax
Ans. (b)
22. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) Can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) Can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) Are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) Efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)
23. Measurement of 1ate of oxygen utilization by a unit volume of water over a period of time is to measure
(a) Biochemical oxygen demand
(b) Biosynthetic pathway
(c) Biogas generation
(d) Fermentation
Ans. (a)
24. The strongest muscle in the body is present in
(a) Arm
(b) Jaw
(c) Thigh
(d) Neck
Ans. (b)
25. The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and Chernobyl tragedies respectively occurred where and at which time?
(a) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1990
(b) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1988
(c) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1986
(d) Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988
Ans. (c)
Biology model Question papers with Answers for Nursing jobs
1. Haversian system is typically found in bones of
(a) Fishes
(b) Ayes
(c) Reptiles
(d) Mammals
Ans. (d)
2. The actively dividing layer of columnar cells in the epidermis of man is called as the
(a) Stratum granulosum
(b) Stratum lucidum
(c) Stratum malpighi
(d) Stratum comeum
Ans. (c)
3. The bone of a mammal contains Haversian canals, which are connected by transverse canals known as
(a) Semicircular canals
(b) Inguinal canals
(c) Volkmann’s canals
(d) Bidder’s canals
Ans. (c)
4. Horns of most mammals are composed of
(a) Bones
(b) Cartilage
(c) Keratin
(d) Chitin
Ans. (c)
5. Blood is
(a) Acidic
(b) Alkaline
(c) Variable
(d) Neutral
Ans. (b)
6. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was put forth by
(a) De Vries
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) Galton
Ans. (b)
7. Mammalian erythrocytes are
(a) circular
(b) Biconcave
(c) Non-nucleated
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
8. Gennplasm theory was given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Weismann
(c) Darwin
(d) De Vries
Ans. (b)
9. Life span of RBC is
(a) 50 days
(b) 75 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 100 days
Ans. (c)
10. The biggest opponent of Lamarck was
(a) G. Cuvier
(b) A. Weismann
(c) I. Pavlov
(d) Kamrer
Ans. (b)
11. Basic idea of organic evolution is
(a) Cosmic evolution
(b) Descent with modification
(c) Special creation
(d) Spontaneous generation
Ans. (b)
12. All of the following influenced Dw1N as he synthesised the concept of natural selection except
(a) The finches of the Galapagos
(b) Malthus’s essay on the principle of population
(c) The results of artificial selection
(d) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
Ans. (d)
13. The Galapagos Islands are associated with the visit of
(a) Jean Lamarck
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Gregor Mendel
(d) Alfred Wallace
Ans. (b)
14. Which one of the following blood pigments contains copper?
(a) Haemoerythrin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Chlorocruorin
(d) Haemoglobin
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following was most influential upon Darwin’s formulation of theory of natural selection?
(a) De Vries concept of mutation
(b) Wallace’s paper on survival
(c) Malthus’s essay on population
(d) Lamarck’s on inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following tissues in a human being uses the greatest amount of energy?
(a) Vascular tissue
(b) Muscular tissue
(c) Nervous tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue
Ans. (b)
17. ‘Survival of the fittest’ was used by
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(c) Hugo DeVries
(d) Herbert Spencer
Ans. (d)
18. Striped muscle fiber has
(a) Many nuclei
(b) Two nuclei
(c) No nuclei
(d) One nucleus
Ans. (a)
19. After observing the variations HUGO DE VRIES first of all described the mutation in
(a) Oenothera lamarl.4ana
(b) Neurospora crassa
(c) Pisum sativum
(d) Drosophila melanogaster
Ans. (a)
20. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) Lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)
21. When we lift hand
(a) The triceps contracts and the biceps relaxes
(b) The biceps contracts and the triceps relaxes
(c) Both biceps and triceps contract
(d) Both biceps and triceps relax
Ans. (b)
22. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) Can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) Can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) Are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) Efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)
23. Measurement of 1ate of oxygen utilization by a unit volume of water over a period of time is to measure
(a) Biochemical oxygen demand
(b) Biosynthetic pathway
(c) Biogas generation
(d) Fermentation
Ans. (a)
24. The strongest muscle in the body is present in
(a) Arm
(b) Jaw
(c) Thigh
(d) Neck
Ans. (b)
25. The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and Chernobyl tragedies respectively occurred where and at which time?
(a) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1990
(b) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1988
(c) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1986
(d) Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988
Ans. (c)
Saturday, August 27, 2011
Free Psychology Test online Questions
Free Psychology Test online Questions
Free Practice test Psychology
1. Latent learning goes on under—
(A) Low levels of drive
(B) High levels of drive
(C) Strong motivation to learn
(D) Stimulatory conditions of reward and punishment that are perceived at the subconscious level
Ans. (A)
2. The following play an important role in emotions—
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Limbic system
(D) Limbic system and hypothalamus
Ans. (D)
3. Shifting from right-hand driving (in America) to left-hand driving (in Britain) in an example of—
(A) Negative transfer of learning
(B) Positive transfer of learning
(C) No transfer of learning
(D) Learning by past experience
Ans. (A)
4. The pituitary gland is the master endocrine gland because—
(A) It produces the largest number of different hormones
(B) It controls the secretion of several other endocrine glands
(C) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(D) It controls the timings and amount of body growth
Ans. (C)
5. If reinforcement is given after unpredictable period of time with some specified average time between reinforcement it is
known as—
(A) Variable interval schedule
(B) Fixed ratio schedule
(C) Fixed interval schedule
(D) Variable ratio schedule
Ans. (A)
6. Some of the mood altering drugs (such as tranquilizers and LSD) probably create their effect by—
(A) Changing the activity of the synapsis
(B) Blocking the release of some synaptic transmitters and thus allowing fewer messages to get through.
(C) Accumulating in certain brain cells, where they may act like certain neural transmitters and over stimulate the cells
(D) Either of the above alternatives are true
Ans. (D)
7. A boy who paints because he derives satisfaction by painting is motivated by—
(A) Selective reward
(B) Extrinsic reward
(C) Mixed reward
(D) Intrinsic reward
Ans. (D)
8. Lymbic system (old brain) is involved in—
(A) Carrying out actions that require a sequence of behavior for completion
(B) Control of many bodily functions
(C) Learning and memory
(D) Thinking
Ans. (A)
9. In order to achieve success in life, one should—
(A) Have plenty of money
(B) Have contacts with influential persons
(C) Work hard and continuously
(D) Be honest and sincere
Ans. (C)
10. Hair and fat distribution in human body is controlled mainly by the secretions from the—
(A) Adrenal glands
(B) Gonads
(C) Pituitary
(D) Thyroid
Ans. (B)
11. A decrease in intensity or probability of a response’s occurrence after lapse of some time take place in—
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Apparent conditioning
(C) Neither of these
(D) Both of these
Ans. (D)
12. In case of man, the amount of cortex corresponding to—
(A) Hands and finger is much larger than that devoted to the feet and toes
(B) Feet and toes is much larger than that devoted to the hands and finger
(C) Feet and toes and of hands and fingers is approximately the same amount
(D) In the tongue is the maximum
Ans. (A)
13. Reticular formation serves to—
(A) Control motor behavior
(B) Arouses other parts of the brain to be ready to function
(C) To influence hunger and eating behavior
(D) To determine sequence of behavior for completion of an act
Ans. (B)
14. Punishing a child for wetting the bed, often—
(A) Substitute the behavior by some other behavior
(B) Decrease the frequency of the behavior
(C) Increase the frequency of the behavior
(D) Does not have any effect
Ans. (C)
15. Which of the following is not true for low and high anxious subject?
(A) Ego involving instructions raises scores for low anxious subject
(B) Pressure to finish a task results in a substantially improved score for high anxious subjects but not for low anxious subjects
(C) High anxious subjects learn a simple classically conditioned response (e.g., eye blink to airpuff) more rapidly than low anxious
subjects
(D) In complex tasks, the low anxious subjects do better
Ans. (B)
16. Lesions in the visual association area causes—
(A) Deficits in the ability to recognize and discriminate different forms
(B) Loss of visual acuity
(C) Delayed-response deficit
(D) Only (A) and (B) are true
Ans. (D)
17. The grade-point average is least affected by the degree of anxiety, at—
(A) The middle range of ability
(B) The extremes of ability
(C) The effect is approximately the same at all levels of ability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
18. Dwarfism occurs as a result of—
(A) Under secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone
(B) Over secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone
(C) Environmental influences
(D) Inadequate protein intake especially during early childhood
Ans. (A)
19. The following characteristic is not carried by recessive genes—
(A) Brown-eyes
(B) Baldness
(C) Susceptibility to poisoning
(D) Hemophilia
Ans. (A)
20. All of the following are correct about the role of the brain in emotional reaction except—
(A) The brain is ‘involved in both the coordination of all emotional activities
(B) The brain plays an important role in the arousal as well as inhibition of emotional reactions
(C) If the limbic system is removed the animal goes to sleep and becomes completely inactive. (otherwise, it becomes enraged at a
slight stimulation)
(D) If the neocortex is removed the animal becomes very placid and tame showing little or no reaction to considerable provocation.
Ans. (C)
21. The methods used for studying the heritability of traits in human beings is by means of—
(A) Selective breeding
(B) Fraternal and identical twin studies
(C) Identical twin studies
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)
22. An individual with an XXY 23rd chromosome is—
(A) Physically a female with marked masculine characteristics
(B) Physically a male with marked feminine characteristics
(C) A homosexual
(D) An eunuch
Ans. (B)
23. Which of the following is not true about autonomic nervous system?
(A) Autonomic’ nerve fibers originate from cells locate in the spinal cord and the brain and are distributed to sense organs in the skin.
(B) It is constituted by the efferent visceral fibre taken collectively.
(C) It is important neural mechanisms which help an individual adjust to his environment.
(D) It helps the person by preparing him for action for fighting or running away, for releasing or for digesting and excreting waste
Matter.
Ans. (A)
24. Environmental influences—
(A) Can change the genetic make-up
(B) Cannot change the I.Q. level of an individual
(C) Can change the utilization of the inherited potential
(D) All of the above are true
Ans. (C)
25. The transmission of an impulse in a neuron depends on—
(A) Graded potential
(B) The all-or-none principle
(C) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) are correct
Ans. (B)
Free Practice test Psychology
1. Latent learning goes on under—
(A) Low levels of drive
(B) High levels of drive
(C) Strong motivation to learn
(D) Stimulatory conditions of reward and punishment that are perceived at the subconscious level
Ans. (A)
2. The following play an important role in emotions—
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Limbic system
(D) Limbic system and hypothalamus
Ans. (D)
3. Shifting from right-hand driving (in America) to left-hand driving (in Britain) in an example of—
(A) Negative transfer of learning
(B) Positive transfer of learning
(C) No transfer of learning
(D) Learning by past experience
Ans. (A)
4. The pituitary gland is the master endocrine gland because—
(A) It produces the largest number of different hormones
(B) It controls the secretion of several other endocrine glands
(C) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(D) It controls the timings and amount of body growth
Ans. (C)
5. If reinforcement is given after unpredictable period of time with some specified average time between reinforcement it is
known as—
(A) Variable interval schedule
(B) Fixed ratio schedule
(C) Fixed interval schedule
(D) Variable ratio schedule
Ans. (A)
6. Some of the mood altering drugs (such as tranquilizers and LSD) probably create their effect by—
(A) Changing the activity of the synapsis
(B) Blocking the release of some synaptic transmitters and thus allowing fewer messages to get through.
(C) Accumulating in certain brain cells, where they may act like certain neural transmitters and over stimulate the cells
(D) Either of the above alternatives are true
Ans. (D)
7. A boy who paints because he derives satisfaction by painting is motivated by—
(A) Selective reward
(B) Extrinsic reward
(C) Mixed reward
(D) Intrinsic reward
Ans. (D)
8. Lymbic system (old brain) is involved in—
(A) Carrying out actions that require a sequence of behavior for completion
(B) Control of many bodily functions
(C) Learning and memory
(D) Thinking
Ans. (A)
9. In order to achieve success in life, one should—
(A) Have plenty of money
(B) Have contacts with influential persons
(C) Work hard and continuously
(D) Be honest and sincere
Ans. (C)
10. Hair and fat distribution in human body is controlled mainly by the secretions from the—
(A) Adrenal glands
(B) Gonads
(C) Pituitary
(D) Thyroid
Ans. (B)
11. A decrease in intensity or probability of a response’s occurrence after lapse of some time take place in—
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Apparent conditioning
(C) Neither of these
(D) Both of these
Ans. (D)
12. In case of man, the amount of cortex corresponding to—
(A) Hands and finger is much larger than that devoted to the feet and toes
(B) Feet and toes is much larger than that devoted to the hands and finger
(C) Feet and toes and of hands and fingers is approximately the same amount
(D) In the tongue is the maximum
Ans. (A)
13. Reticular formation serves to—
(A) Control motor behavior
(B) Arouses other parts of the brain to be ready to function
(C) To influence hunger and eating behavior
(D) To determine sequence of behavior for completion of an act
Ans. (B)
14. Punishing a child for wetting the bed, often—
(A) Substitute the behavior by some other behavior
(B) Decrease the frequency of the behavior
(C) Increase the frequency of the behavior
(D) Does not have any effect
Ans. (C)
15. Which of the following is not true for low and high anxious subject?
(A) Ego involving instructions raises scores for low anxious subject
(B) Pressure to finish a task results in a substantially improved score for high anxious subjects but not for low anxious subjects
(C) High anxious subjects learn a simple classically conditioned response (e.g., eye blink to airpuff) more rapidly than low anxious
subjects
(D) In complex tasks, the low anxious subjects do better
Ans. (B)
16. Lesions in the visual association area causes—
(A) Deficits in the ability to recognize and discriminate different forms
(B) Loss of visual acuity
(C) Delayed-response deficit
(D) Only (A) and (B) are true
Ans. (D)
17. The grade-point average is least affected by the degree of anxiety, at—
(A) The middle range of ability
(B) The extremes of ability
(C) The effect is approximately the same at all levels of ability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
18. Dwarfism occurs as a result of—
(A) Under secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone
(B) Over secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone
(C) Environmental influences
(D) Inadequate protein intake especially during early childhood
Ans. (A)
19. The following characteristic is not carried by recessive genes—
(A) Brown-eyes
(B) Baldness
(C) Susceptibility to poisoning
(D) Hemophilia
Ans. (A)
20. All of the following are correct about the role of the brain in emotional reaction except—
(A) The brain is ‘involved in both the coordination of all emotional activities
(B) The brain plays an important role in the arousal as well as inhibition of emotional reactions
(C) If the limbic system is removed the animal goes to sleep and becomes completely inactive. (otherwise, it becomes enraged at a
slight stimulation)
(D) If the neocortex is removed the animal becomes very placid and tame showing little or no reaction to considerable provocation.
Ans. (C)
21. The methods used for studying the heritability of traits in human beings is by means of—
(A) Selective breeding
(B) Fraternal and identical twin studies
(C) Identical twin studies
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)
22. An individual with an XXY 23rd chromosome is—
(A) Physically a female with marked masculine characteristics
(B) Physically a male with marked feminine characteristics
(C) A homosexual
(D) An eunuch
Ans. (B)
23. Which of the following is not true about autonomic nervous system?
(A) Autonomic’ nerve fibers originate from cells locate in the spinal cord and the brain and are distributed to sense organs in the skin.
(B) It is constituted by the efferent visceral fibre taken collectively.
(C) It is important neural mechanisms which help an individual adjust to his environment.
(D) It helps the person by preparing him for action for fighting or running away, for releasing or for digesting and excreting waste
Matter.
Ans. (A)
24. Environmental influences—
(A) Can change the genetic make-up
(B) Cannot change the I.Q. level of an individual
(C) Can change the utilization of the inherited potential
(D) All of the above are true
Ans. (C)
25. The transmission of an impulse in a neuron depends on—
(A) Graded potential
(B) The all-or-none principle
(C) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) are correct
Ans. (B)
Friday, August 26, 2011
Objective General Science Online Free Test
Objective General Science Online Free Test
Free General Science Online Practice Test
1. What is the distinct human vision normally?
(a) 12-30 feet
(b) 1-2 metres
(c) 25-30 metres
(d) 50-75 cms
(e) 25-30 cms
Answer. (e)
2. Which of the following disease is caused by
Air pollution?
(a) Leukemia
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Rheumatism
(d) Goitre
(e) Rubeola
Answer. (b)
3. Which is not a vector borne disease?
(a) Malaria
(b) Sleeping sickness
(c) Ascariasis
(d) Rabies
(e) Dengue fever
Answer. (c)
4. Larva of mosquito is known as-
(a) lmago
(b) Maggot
(c) Caterpillar
(d) Wriggler
(e) Chrysalis
Answer. (d)
5. Which insect is not found in wild state?
(a) Silk moths
(b) Honey bees
(c) Cochineal insects
(d) Lac insects
(e) None of the above
Answer. (c)
6. Water from soil enters into root hairs owing to-
(a) Atmospheric pressure
(b) Capillarity
(c) Root pressure
(d) Osmotic pressure
(e) Turgor pressure
Answer. (d)
7. The age of a tree can be calculated by-
(a) Counting number of branches
(b) Measuring its girth
(c) Counting the number of annual rings
(d) Measuring its height
(e) Feeling its hardness
Answer. (c)
8. The genes are arranged on chromosome in
a-
(a) Random manner
(b) Spiral manner
(c) Linear manner
(d) Irregul manner
(e) None of the above manner
Answer. (c)
9. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the-
(a) Small intestine
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Liver
(d) Heart
(e) Kidneys
Answer. (b)
10. Trachoma is the disease of the-
(a) Skin
(b) Eyes
(C) Ear
(d) Lungs
(e) Liver
Answer. (b)
11. Which type of soil is the best for wheat
Crop?
(a) Loam
(b) Sandy loam
(c) Sandy
(d) Gravel
(e) Clay
Answer. (a)
12. The heart of a young man beats about-
(a) 50 times per minute
(b) 72 times per minute
(c) 9O times per minute
(d) 110 times per minute
(e) 120 times per minute
Answer. (b)
13. The total number of bones in the human
Body is-
(a) 206
(b) 260
(c) 306
(d) 360
(e) 417
Answer. (a)
14. Deficiency of vitamin E results in-
(a) Scurvy
(b) Loss of fertility
(c) Rickets
(d) Beri-Beri
(e) Xeropthalmia
Answer. (b)
15. Which of the following is anti-coagulant?
(a) Thromboplastin
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Potassium chloride
(d) Fibrinogen
(e) Sodium oxalate
Answer. (e)
16. ‘Universal Donor’ belongs to blood group-
(a) O
(b) AB
(c) B
(d) A
(e) None of these
Answer. (a)
17. Bile is secreted by the-
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Pancrease
(d) Spleen
(e) Walls of the stomach
Answer. (b)
18. Carbon becomes available to crop plants in
The form of-
(a) Amino acids
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbonates
(d) Element carbon
(e) Carbohydrates
Answer. (b)
19. Blood circulates from arteries to veins
Through microscopic vessels known as-
(a) Capillaries
(b) Corpuscles
(c) Cells
(d) Calories
(e) Tubes
Answer. (a)
20. Blood is composite system consisting of-
(a) Plasma and red blood cells
(b) Plasma, white blood cells and red blood
Cells
(c) Cells of bone marrow and spleen, and
Plasma
(d) Plasma and white blood cells
(e) Protoplasm and haemoglobin
Answer. (b)
Free General Science Online Practice Test
1. What is the distinct human vision normally?
(a) 12-30 feet
(b) 1-2 metres
(c) 25-30 metres
(d) 50-75 cms
(e) 25-30 cms
Answer. (e)
2. Which of the following disease is caused by
Air pollution?
(a) Leukemia
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Rheumatism
(d) Goitre
(e) Rubeola
Answer. (b)
3. Which is not a vector borne disease?
(a) Malaria
(b) Sleeping sickness
(c) Ascariasis
(d) Rabies
(e) Dengue fever
Answer. (c)
4. Larva of mosquito is known as-
(a) lmago
(b) Maggot
(c) Caterpillar
(d) Wriggler
(e) Chrysalis
Answer. (d)
5. Which insect is not found in wild state?
(a) Silk moths
(b) Honey bees
(c) Cochineal insects
(d) Lac insects
(e) None of the above
Answer. (c)
6. Water from soil enters into root hairs owing to-
(a) Atmospheric pressure
(b) Capillarity
(c) Root pressure
(d) Osmotic pressure
(e) Turgor pressure
Answer. (d)
7. The age of a tree can be calculated by-
(a) Counting number of branches
(b) Measuring its girth
(c) Counting the number of annual rings
(d) Measuring its height
(e) Feeling its hardness
Answer. (c)
8. The genes are arranged on chromosome in
a-
(a) Random manner
(b) Spiral manner
(c) Linear manner
(d) Irregul manner
(e) None of the above manner
Answer. (c)
9. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the-
(a) Small intestine
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Liver
(d) Heart
(e) Kidneys
Answer. (b)
10. Trachoma is the disease of the-
(a) Skin
(b) Eyes
(C) Ear
(d) Lungs
(e) Liver
Answer. (b)
11. Which type of soil is the best for wheat
Crop?
(a) Loam
(b) Sandy loam
(c) Sandy
(d) Gravel
(e) Clay
Answer. (a)
12. The heart of a young man beats about-
(a) 50 times per minute
(b) 72 times per minute
(c) 9O times per minute
(d) 110 times per minute
(e) 120 times per minute
Answer. (b)
13. The total number of bones in the human
Body is-
(a) 206
(b) 260
(c) 306
(d) 360
(e) 417
Answer. (a)
14. Deficiency of vitamin E results in-
(a) Scurvy
(b) Loss of fertility
(c) Rickets
(d) Beri-Beri
(e) Xeropthalmia
Answer. (b)
15. Which of the following is anti-coagulant?
(a) Thromboplastin
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Potassium chloride
(d) Fibrinogen
(e) Sodium oxalate
Answer. (e)
16. ‘Universal Donor’ belongs to blood group-
(a) O
(b) AB
(c) B
(d) A
(e) None of these
Answer. (a)
17. Bile is secreted by the-
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Pancrease
(d) Spleen
(e) Walls of the stomach
Answer. (b)
18. Carbon becomes available to crop plants in
The form of-
(a) Amino acids
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbonates
(d) Element carbon
(e) Carbohydrates
Answer. (b)
19. Blood circulates from arteries to veins
Through microscopic vessels known as-
(a) Capillaries
(b) Corpuscles
(c) Cells
(d) Calories
(e) Tubes
Answer. (a)
20. Blood is composite system consisting of-
(a) Plasma and red blood cells
(b) Plasma, white blood cells and red blood
Cells
(c) Cells of bone marrow and spleen, and
Plasma
(d) Plasma and white blood cells
(e) Protoplasm and haemoglobin
Answer. (b)
Wednesday, August 24, 2011
Model Paper Objective maths and Algebra
Model Paper Objective maths and Algebra
Mathematics Objective Type Questions With Answers,these are very useful for various exams which contain MCQ type Questions on Maths
1. If y – 1/3y =1/3 then the value of y(y – 1/3) is
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/5
(d) 1/6
Ans. (a)
2. If x2 - 11x + 1 = 0, then the value of x + 1/x is
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans. (b)
3. If x — 2/x = 1 then the value of (x2+x+2)/x2 (1—x) is
(a) 2
(b) —1
(c) 0
(d) 1
Ans. (d)
4. If 2x + 1/3x = 5, then the va1ue of 5x/(6x2+20x+1) is
(a) 3/7
(b) 2/7
(c) 1/7
(d) 4/7
Ans. (c)
5. The value of expression a + b — a x a / a [a of 1/a] on simplifying is
(a) b
(b) a
(c) a2
(d) b2
Ans. (b)
6.The value of l—[1—1—(1—1 + x)]on simplifying is
(a) 2—x
(b) 1+x
(c) 1—x
(d) 2+x
Ans. (b)
7. If 2m — 1/2m = 2 then the value of m2 + 1/16m2 is
(a) 3/2
(b) 1/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 7/2
Ans. (a)
8. The number of square tiles required of size 20 cm to cover a square courtyard of area
64 m2 are
(a) 1598
(b) 1600
(c) 1605
(d) 1606
Ans. (b)
9. A businessman, by means of a false balance defrauds to an extent of 10% in buying goods and 10% in selling goods. Then, by how much percent does he gain?
(a) 21%
(b) 24%
(c) 19%
(d) 18%
Ans. (a)
10. Jayant sold two books at Rs 14 each. On one he gains 20% and on the other loses 20%. Then he made
(a) No profit no loss
(b) Lose is of 4%
(c) Gain of 1%
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
11. In selling an article for Rs 76, a shopkeeper gains 52%. The gain by selling that for Rs 74 is
(a) 45%
(b) 48%
(c) 49%
(d) 50%
Ans. (b)
12. ‘A’ buys a pen for Rs 4 and sells it for Rs 5. He calculates his profit first as a percentage of the buying price then as a percentage of the selling price. The difference between these two is
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 5%
(d) 15%
Ans. (c)
13. The length of second diagonal in the above question is
(a) 19 cm
(b) 18 cm
(c) 17cm
(d) 16cm
Ans. (d)
14. The area of the trapezium is 312 cm2, then the distance between the parallel sides whose lengths are 21 cm and 27 cm respectively is
(a) 13cm
(b) 14cm
(c) 15cm
(d) 16cm
Ans. (c)
15. The measure of the angle between the internal and external bisectors of an angle is
(a) 60°
(b) 70°
(c) 80°
(d) 90°
Ans. (d)
16. Each of the base angle of an isosceles triangle is twice the vertical angle then the vertical angle is
(a) 35°
(b) 36°
(c) 37°
(d) 38°
Ans. (b)
17. The angle between the external bisectors of two angles of a triangle is 50° then the third angle is
(a) 75°
(b) 80°
(c) 85°
(d) 90°
Ans. (b)
18. If x = 2t and y = t/3 - 1then the value of t for which x = 2y is
(a) t = -3/2
(b) t = 3/2
(c) t = l/2
(d) t = 5/2
Ans. (a)
19. A can do a work in x days and B can do the same work in y days then the number of days taken by A and B together to complete the work are
(a) y/(x + y) Days
(a) x/(x + y) Days
(a) xy/(x + y) Days
(a) xy/(x - y) Days
Ans. (c)
20. If 125 x centimeter per second = (x + 7) km hour then the value of x is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (c)
21. The distance between the two parallel chords of length 8 cm and 6 cm in a circle of diameter 10 cm if the chords lie on the same side of the centre is
(a) 1cm
(b) 2cm
(c) 3cm
(d) 4cm
Ans. (a)
22. If x = b-c, y=c-a, z=a-b then the value of x2-y2 +z2 + 2xz is
(a) 2
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 1
Ans. (c)
23. If x2+y2-2x+6y+ 10=0, and x-3y= 10, then the value of x2 +y2 is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Ans. (d)
24. The HCF and LCM of 77, 99 and x are 11 and 3465 respectively, the greatest value of x is
(a) 55
(b) 56
(c) 57
(d) 58
Ans. (a)
25. If c2+c = -l then the value of c3- 1 is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2
Ans. (b)
Mathematics Objective Type Questions With Answers,these are very useful for various exams which contain MCQ type Questions on Maths
1. If y – 1/3y =1/3 then the value of y(y – 1/3) is
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/5
(d) 1/6
Ans. (a)
2. If x2 - 11x + 1 = 0, then the value of x + 1/x is
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans. (b)
3. If x — 2/x = 1 then the value of (x2+x+2)/x2 (1—x) is
(a) 2
(b) —1
(c) 0
(d) 1
Ans. (d)
4. If 2x + 1/3x = 5, then the va1ue of 5x/(6x2+20x+1) is
(a) 3/7
(b) 2/7
(c) 1/7
(d) 4/7
Ans. (c)
5. The value of expression a + b — a x a / a [a of 1/a] on simplifying is
(a) b
(b) a
(c) a2
(d) b2
Ans. (b)
6.The value of l—[1—1—(1—1 + x)]on simplifying is
(a) 2—x
(b) 1+x
(c) 1—x
(d) 2+x
Ans. (b)
7. If 2m — 1/2m = 2 then the value of m2 + 1/16m2 is
(a) 3/2
(b) 1/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 7/2
Ans. (a)
8. The number of square tiles required of size 20 cm to cover a square courtyard of area
64 m2 are
(a) 1598
(b) 1600
(c) 1605
(d) 1606
Ans. (b)
9. A businessman, by means of a false balance defrauds to an extent of 10% in buying goods and 10% in selling goods. Then, by how much percent does he gain?
(a) 21%
(b) 24%
(c) 19%
(d) 18%
Ans. (a)
10. Jayant sold two books at Rs 14 each. On one he gains 20% and on the other loses 20%. Then he made
(a) No profit no loss
(b) Lose is of 4%
(c) Gain of 1%
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
11. In selling an article for Rs 76, a shopkeeper gains 52%. The gain by selling that for Rs 74 is
(a) 45%
(b) 48%
(c) 49%
(d) 50%
Ans. (b)
12. ‘A’ buys a pen for Rs 4 and sells it for Rs 5. He calculates his profit first as a percentage of the buying price then as a percentage of the selling price. The difference between these two is
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 5%
(d) 15%
Ans. (c)
13. The length of second diagonal in the above question is
(a) 19 cm
(b) 18 cm
(c) 17cm
(d) 16cm
Ans. (d)
14. The area of the trapezium is 312 cm2, then the distance between the parallel sides whose lengths are 21 cm and 27 cm respectively is
(a) 13cm
(b) 14cm
(c) 15cm
(d) 16cm
Ans. (c)
15. The measure of the angle between the internal and external bisectors of an angle is
(a) 60°
(b) 70°
(c) 80°
(d) 90°
Ans. (d)
16. Each of the base angle of an isosceles triangle is twice the vertical angle then the vertical angle is
(a) 35°
(b) 36°
(c) 37°
(d) 38°
Ans. (b)
17. The angle between the external bisectors of two angles of a triangle is 50° then the third angle is
(a) 75°
(b) 80°
(c) 85°
(d) 90°
Ans. (b)
18. If x = 2t and y = t/3 - 1then the value of t for which x = 2y is
(a) t = -3/2
(b) t = 3/2
(c) t = l/2
(d) t = 5/2
Ans. (a)
19. A can do a work in x days and B can do the same work in y days then the number of days taken by A and B together to complete the work are
(a) y/(x + y) Days
(a) x/(x + y) Days
(a) xy/(x + y) Days
(a) xy/(x - y) Days
Ans. (c)
20. If 125 x centimeter per second = (x + 7) km hour then the value of x is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (c)
21. The distance between the two parallel chords of length 8 cm and 6 cm in a circle of diameter 10 cm if the chords lie on the same side of the centre is
(a) 1cm
(b) 2cm
(c) 3cm
(d) 4cm
Ans. (a)
22. If x = b-c, y=c-a, z=a-b then the value of x2-y2 +z2 + 2xz is
(a) 2
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 1
Ans. (c)
23. If x2+y2-2x+6y+ 10=0, and x-3y= 10, then the value of x2 +y2 is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Ans. (d)
24. The HCF and LCM of 77, 99 and x are 11 and 3465 respectively, the greatest value of x is
(a) 55
(b) 56
(c) 57
(d) 58
Ans. (a)
25. If c2+c = -l then the value of c3- 1 is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2
Ans. (b)
Maths Questions Exam Prepeartion Practice test For Bank PO
Maths Questions Exam Prepeartion Practice test For Bank PO
Bank PO exams contain a large number of Tough objective Questions
This Sample Paper will be helpful for Candidates Appearing For Bank PO Exams
1. A person purchases 20 liters of juice at Rs 2.20 per liter and diluted it with water to make the contents 22 liters. In order to earn 10% profit he should sell the juice at
(a) Rs 2.20
(b) Rs 2.00
(c) Rs 2.35
(d) Rs 2.40
Ans. (a)
2. A, B, C earns Rs 1,980 in total. They earn it in the ratio of 2: 1 and 3 : 2 respectively, then B earned
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 520
(c) Rs 540
(d) Rs 560
Ans. (c)
3. A person purchased 10 dozen pens the rate of Rs 4 per dozen. On checking, he found that 10 pens were not working. In order to earn 25% he should sell the remaining pens, each at
(a) 40 paise
(b) 44 paise
(c) 50 paise
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
4. A candidate who gets 30% of the marks in an examination fails by 50 marks. Another candidate who gets 320 marks fails by 30 marks. Then the maximum marks is
(a) 800
(b) 900
(c) 1000
(d) 1,100
Ans. (c)
5. In an election 15% of voters did not vote. A candidate who got 62.5% of votes cast was declared elected by 3,400 votes. Then the total number of votes are
(a) 15,000
(b) 16,000
(c) 17,000
(d) 19,000
Ans. (b)
6. The total number of candidates at an examination, if 31 % fail and the number of falling students is 248, is
(a) 800
(b) 900
(c) 1,000
(d) 1,100
Ans. (a)
7. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum for 3 years at 10% per annum is Rs 63.86. Then the sum is
(a) Rs 2,600
(b) Rs 2,006
(c) Rs 2,060
(d) Rs 2,080
Ans. (c)
8. The simple interest on a sum of money deposited for 6 years at 4.5% per annum is Rs 270, and then the sum is
(a) Rs 1,000
(b) Rs 1.050
(c) Rs 1,075
(d) Rs 2,000
Ans. (a)
9. If 391 is divided into three parts proportional ½: 2/3: 3, then the first part is
(a) 150
(b) 160
(c) 180
(d) None
Ans. (d)
10. 16 men or 24 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. The number of days needed to complete the job, if 20 men and 30 women are employed to do the same piece of work is
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Ans. (c)
11. 10% of 15% of 20% of Rs 500 is
(a) 0.50
(b) 3.50
(c) 1.50
(d) 2.50
Ans. (c)
12. If the price of tea rises by 20%, then by how much percent does a house wife reduce her consumption so that her expenditure remains same?
(a) 20%
(b)12.5 %
(c) 50/3 %
(d) 50/6 %
Ans. (c)
13. A trader purchases 70 kg of tea at Rs 15 per kg and 30kg of tea at Rs 18.50 per kg. If the packing charges are 2 percent, then at what price he must sell the mixture of two to gain 15%?
(a) Rs 18.80 per kg
(b) Rs 18 per kg
(c) Rs 18.50 per kg
(d) Rs 117.80 per kg
Ans. (a)
14. By giving a discount of 10% on the marked price of Rs 1,100 of a sewing machine dealer gains 10%, then the cost price is
(a) Rs 900
(b) Rs 950
(c) Rs 1,000
(d) Rs 1,050
Ans. (a)
15. A shopkeeper sells a badminton marked at Rs 30 at 15% discount and gives a shuttle cock costing Rs 1.50 free with each badminton. He then makes a profit of 20%. His cost price per badminton is
(a) Rs 35
(b) Rs 30
(c) Rs 25
(d) Rs 20
Ans. (d)
16. If a radio is sold at Rs 972, then profit is 8%. If it is sold at Rs 872, then there is a loss of
(a) Rs28
(b) Rs25
(c) Rs 20
(d) Rs 15
Ans. (a)
17. A shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a weight of 800 grams instead of a kilogram weight. Thus he makes a gain of
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Ans. (d)
18. Rajan earns 33% less than Ram. Then by how much percent is Ram’s income above Rajan’s?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 74%
Ans. (b)
19. On a purchase of goods worth Rs 1,00,0(10, Han has a choice between three successive discounts of 40%, 5%. and 5% and three successive discounts of 20%, 20% and 10%. Then by choosing the former offer he would save
(a) Rs 2,500
(b) Rs 3,00t
(c) Rs 3,400
(d) Rs 3,450
Ans. (d)
20. The ratio of ink and water in 66 liters of adulterated ink is 5 : 1. The quantity of water to be added in the mixture to make the ratio of ink and water 5 : 3 is
(a) 20 liters
(b) 22 liters
(c) 24 liters
(d) 26 liters
Ans. (b)
21. Rs 300 amount to Rs 360 in 4 years at simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 1%, it would amount to
(a) Rs 364
(b) Rs 368
(c) Rs 372
(d) Rs 384
Ans. (c)
22. The simple interest on a sum of money is of the principal and the rate percent is equal to number of years. The rate percent is
(a) 3%
(b) 4%
(c) 5%
(d) 6%
Ans. (d)
23. The difference between the simple interest and compound interest on Rs 400 at 5% per annum for 2 years is
(a) Rs 1
(b) Rs 10
(c) Rs 12
(d) Rs 15
Ans. (a)
24. A sum of Rs 16,400 is bowed to be paid back in 2 years by two equal annual payments, allowing 5% compound interest. The annual payment is
(a) Rs 8,000
(b) Rs 8,050
(c) Rs 8,820
(d) Rs 9,000
Ans. (c)
25. An electric meter gives a reading of 10% less than the actual consumption. If the reading of one month is 180 units, then the actual consumption is
(a) 162 units
(b) 200 units
(c) 190 units
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Bank PO exams contain a large number of Tough objective Questions
This Sample Paper will be helpful for Candidates Appearing For Bank PO Exams
1. A person purchases 20 liters of juice at Rs 2.20 per liter and diluted it with water to make the contents 22 liters. In order to earn 10% profit he should sell the juice at
(a) Rs 2.20
(b) Rs 2.00
(c) Rs 2.35
(d) Rs 2.40
Ans. (a)
2. A, B, C earns Rs 1,980 in total. They earn it in the ratio of 2: 1 and 3 : 2 respectively, then B earned
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 520
(c) Rs 540
(d) Rs 560
Ans. (c)
3. A person purchased 10 dozen pens the rate of Rs 4 per dozen. On checking, he found that 10 pens were not working. In order to earn 25% he should sell the remaining pens, each at
(a) 40 paise
(b) 44 paise
(c) 50 paise
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
4. A candidate who gets 30% of the marks in an examination fails by 50 marks. Another candidate who gets 320 marks fails by 30 marks. Then the maximum marks is
(a) 800
(b) 900
(c) 1000
(d) 1,100
Ans. (c)
5. In an election 15% of voters did not vote. A candidate who got 62.5% of votes cast was declared elected by 3,400 votes. Then the total number of votes are
(a) 15,000
(b) 16,000
(c) 17,000
(d) 19,000
Ans. (b)
6. The total number of candidates at an examination, if 31 % fail and the number of falling students is 248, is
(a) 800
(b) 900
(c) 1,000
(d) 1,100
Ans. (a)
7. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum for 3 years at 10% per annum is Rs 63.86. Then the sum is
(a) Rs 2,600
(b) Rs 2,006
(c) Rs 2,060
(d) Rs 2,080
Ans. (c)
8. The simple interest on a sum of money deposited for 6 years at 4.5% per annum is Rs 270, and then the sum is
(a) Rs 1,000
(b) Rs 1.050
(c) Rs 1,075
(d) Rs 2,000
Ans. (a)
9. If 391 is divided into three parts proportional ½: 2/3: 3, then the first part is
(a) 150
(b) 160
(c) 180
(d) None
Ans. (d)
10. 16 men or 24 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. The number of days needed to complete the job, if 20 men and 30 women are employed to do the same piece of work is
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Ans. (c)
11. 10% of 15% of 20% of Rs 500 is
(a) 0.50
(b) 3.50
(c) 1.50
(d) 2.50
Ans. (c)
12. If the price of tea rises by 20%, then by how much percent does a house wife reduce her consumption so that her expenditure remains same?
(a) 20%
(b)12.5 %
(c) 50/3 %
(d) 50/6 %
Ans. (c)
13. A trader purchases 70 kg of tea at Rs 15 per kg and 30kg of tea at Rs 18.50 per kg. If the packing charges are 2 percent, then at what price he must sell the mixture of two to gain 15%?
(a) Rs 18.80 per kg
(b) Rs 18 per kg
(c) Rs 18.50 per kg
(d) Rs 117.80 per kg
Ans. (a)
14. By giving a discount of 10% on the marked price of Rs 1,100 of a sewing machine dealer gains 10%, then the cost price is
(a) Rs 900
(b) Rs 950
(c) Rs 1,000
(d) Rs 1,050
Ans. (a)
15. A shopkeeper sells a badminton marked at Rs 30 at 15% discount and gives a shuttle cock costing Rs 1.50 free with each badminton. He then makes a profit of 20%. His cost price per badminton is
(a) Rs 35
(b) Rs 30
(c) Rs 25
(d) Rs 20
Ans. (d)
16. If a radio is sold at Rs 972, then profit is 8%. If it is sold at Rs 872, then there is a loss of
(a) Rs28
(b) Rs25
(c) Rs 20
(d) Rs 15
Ans. (a)
17. A shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a weight of 800 grams instead of a kilogram weight. Thus he makes a gain of
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Ans. (d)
18. Rajan earns 33% less than Ram. Then by how much percent is Ram’s income above Rajan’s?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 74%
Ans. (b)
19. On a purchase of goods worth Rs 1,00,0(10, Han has a choice between three successive discounts of 40%, 5%. and 5% and three successive discounts of 20%, 20% and 10%. Then by choosing the former offer he would save
(a) Rs 2,500
(b) Rs 3,00t
(c) Rs 3,400
(d) Rs 3,450
Ans. (d)
20. The ratio of ink and water in 66 liters of adulterated ink is 5 : 1. The quantity of water to be added in the mixture to make the ratio of ink and water 5 : 3 is
(a) 20 liters
(b) 22 liters
(c) 24 liters
(d) 26 liters
Ans. (b)
21. Rs 300 amount to Rs 360 in 4 years at simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 1%, it would amount to
(a) Rs 364
(b) Rs 368
(c) Rs 372
(d) Rs 384
Ans. (c)
22. The simple interest on a sum of money is of the principal and the rate percent is equal to number of years. The rate percent is
(a) 3%
(b) 4%
(c) 5%
(d) 6%
Ans. (d)
23. The difference between the simple interest and compound interest on Rs 400 at 5% per annum for 2 years is
(a) Rs 1
(b) Rs 10
(c) Rs 12
(d) Rs 15
Ans. (a)
24. A sum of Rs 16,400 is bowed to be paid back in 2 years by two equal annual payments, allowing 5% compound interest. The annual payment is
(a) Rs 8,000
(b) Rs 8,050
(c) Rs 8,820
(d) Rs 9,000
Ans. (c)
25. An electric meter gives a reading of 10% less than the actual consumption. If the reading of one month is 180 units, then the actual consumption is
(a) 162 units
(b) 200 units
(c) 190 units
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Free online Sample Paper on Crops For FCI Exams
Free online Sample Paper For FCI Exams
Objective Questions on Food,Fodder and Crops
1. Which is the most important source of food and fodder?
(a) Algae
(b) Lichen
(c) Fungi
(d) Cereal
Ans. (d)
2. Of the elements in the following list, which is needed in the lowest concentration by plants?
(a) Calcium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Iron
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following elements is not required for normal growth of the plant?
(a) Pb
(b) Ca
(c) Fe
(d) Mg
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following elements is needed as a component in cell membranes, nucleic acids and energy transfer?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Calcium
(d) Potassium
Ans. (b)
5. Fairly good yield of rice can be had over a number of years without adding any nitrogenous manures because
(a) they require very minute quantities of nitrogen
(b) their roots have nitrogen-fixing bacterial associated with
(c) there are nitrogen-fixing algae in the rice fields
(d) rice plant do not require any nitrogen
Ans. (c)
6. The first effect of adding fertiliser o a pond would most likely be to
(a) decrease the amount of phytoplankton
(b) kill most bacteria V
(c) lower the compensation point
(d) increase the amount of phytoplankton
Ans. (d)
7. The largest area under cultivation in India is for which of the following crops?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Jowar
Ans. (a)
8. When a natural predator living being is applied on the other pathogen organism to control them, this process is called
(a) genetic engineering
(b) biological control
(c) artificial control
(d) confusion technique
Ans. (b)
9. Biological control of agricultural pests, unlike chemical control, is
(a) very expensive
(b) self perpetuating
(c) toxic
(d) polluting
Ans. (b)
10. Which of the following is not an air-borne disease?
(a) Black stem rust of wheat
(b) Coffee rust
(c) Blast of rice
(d) Potato mosaic disease
Ans. (d)
11. An American plant, which had become a troublesome waterweed in India is
(a) Typha latifolia
(b) Trapa bispinosa
(c) Cyprus rotundus
d) Eichhornia crassipes
Ans. (d)
12. The major drawback of DDT as a pesticide is that
(a) it is significantly less effective than other pesticides
(b) its cost of production is high
(c) it is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature
(d) organisms at once develop resistance to it
Ans. (c)
13. Autotrophs and heterotrophs differ in
(a) how they obtain their carbon
(b) whether they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic
(c) how they reproduce, sexually or asexually
(d) whether they use chemicals or light as a source of energy
Ans. (a)
14. Removal of topsoil by wind and water is called
(a) soil conseration
(b) soil binding
(c) soil erosion
(d) mulching
Ans. (c)
15. Which of the following is an example of a weed of kharif season that infest maize crop?
(a) Amaranthus (chauli)
(b) Nut grass (motha)
(c) Sorghum (jangali jowar)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
16. Green manuring enhances crop yield by
(a) 5—10%
(b) 15—25%
(c) 30—50%
(d) 60—75%
Ans. (c)
17. Nitrogen content of urea is
(a) 46%
(b) 36%
(c) 26%
(d) 56%
Ans. (a)
18. The science of improving crop varieties is called
(a) hybridisation
(b) selection
(c) introduction
(d) plant breeding
Ans. (d)
19. Growing two or more crops but in definite row pattern is known as
(a) intercropping
(b) crop rotation
(c) mixed farming
(d) mixed cropping
Ans. (a)
20. Green revolution refers to
(a) maintaining soil fertility
(b) use of green plants for covering the earth
(c) development of new crop varieties which helped to overcome hunger
(d) growing green plants to establish balance of nature
Ans. (c)
21. Recognition for bringing green revolution to India goes to
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) Gurdev S. Khush
Ans. (a)
22 Horti-pastoral farming refers to
(a) growing food and fodder
(b) growing mixed crops
(c) growing fodder and rearing cattle, etc.
(d) growing fruit trees and fodder simultaneously
Ans. (d)
23. Sharbati Sonora variety of wheat was obtained by
(a) crossing with wild varieties of wheat
(b) hybridisation between wild varieties of wheat
(c) X-ray treatment
(d) irradiation of Sonora 64 with gamma rays
Ans. (d)
24. Which is the oldest breeding method?
(a) Hybridisation
(b) Selection
(c) Mutation
(d) Introduction
Ans. (d)
25. Removal of stamens in an inter-sexual flower before they dehisce is called
(a) protogyny
(b) protandry
(c) inducing male sterility
(d) emasculation
Ans. (d)
Objective Questions on Food,Fodder and Crops
1. Which is the most important source of food and fodder?
(a) Algae
(b) Lichen
(c) Fungi
(d) Cereal
Ans. (d)
2. Of the elements in the following list, which is needed in the lowest concentration by plants?
(a) Calcium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Iron
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following elements is not required for normal growth of the plant?
(a) Pb
(b) Ca
(c) Fe
(d) Mg
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following elements is needed as a component in cell membranes, nucleic acids and energy transfer?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Calcium
(d) Potassium
Ans. (b)
5. Fairly good yield of rice can be had over a number of years without adding any nitrogenous manures because
(a) they require very minute quantities of nitrogen
(b) their roots have nitrogen-fixing bacterial associated with
(c) there are nitrogen-fixing algae in the rice fields
(d) rice plant do not require any nitrogen
Ans. (c)
6. The first effect of adding fertiliser o a pond would most likely be to
(a) decrease the amount of phytoplankton
(b) kill most bacteria V
(c) lower the compensation point
(d) increase the amount of phytoplankton
Ans. (d)
7. The largest area under cultivation in India is for which of the following crops?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Jowar
Ans. (a)
8. When a natural predator living being is applied on the other pathogen organism to control them, this process is called
(a) genetic engineering
(b) biological control
(c) artificial control
(d) confusion technique
Ans. (b)
9. Biological control of agricultural pests, unlike chemical control, is
(a) very expensive
(b) self perpetuating
(c) toxic
(d) polluting
Ans. (b)
10. Which of the following is not an air-borne disease?
(a) Black stem rust of wheat
(b) Coffee rust
(c) Blast of rice
(d) Potato mosaic disease
Ans. (d)
11. An American plant, which had become a troublesome waterweed in India is
(a) Typha latifolia
(b) Trapa bispinosa
(c) Cyprus rotundus
d) Eichhornia crassipes
Ans. (d)
12. The major drawback of DDT as a pesticide is that
(a) it is significantly less effective than other pesticides
(b) its cost of production is high
(c) it is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature
(d) organisms at once develop resistance to it
Ans. (c)
13. Autotrophs and heterotrophs differ in
(a) how they obtain their carbon
(b) whether they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic
(c) how they reproduce, sexually or asexually
(d) whether they use chemicals or light as a source of energy
Ans. (a)
14. Removal of topsoil by wind and water is called
(a) soil conseration
(b) soil binding
(c) soil erosion
(d) mulching
Ans. (c)
15. Which of the following is an example of a weed of kharif season that infest maize crop?
(a) Amaranthus (chauli)
(b) Nut grass (motha)
(c) Sorghum (jangali jowar)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
16. Green manuring enhances crop yield by
(a) 5—10%
(b) 15—25%
(c) 30—50%
(d) 60—75%
Ans. (c)
17. Nitrogen content of urea is
(a) 46%
(b) 36%
(c) 26%
(d) 56%
Ans. (a)
18. The science of improving crop varieties is called
(a) hybridisation
(b) selection
(c) introduction
(d) plant breeding
Ans. (d)
19. Growing two or more crops but in definite row pattern is known as
(a) intercropping
(b) crop rotation
(c) mixed farming
(d) mixed cropping
Ans. (a)
20. Green revolution refers to
(a) maintaining soil fertility
(b) use of green plants for covering the earth
(c) development of new crop varieties which helped to overcome hunger
(d) growing green plants to establish balance of nature
Ans. (c)
21. Recognition for bringing green revolution to India goes to
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Norman Borlaug
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) Gurdev S. Khush
Ans. (a)
22 Horti-pastoral farming refers to
(a) growing food and fodder
(b) growing mixed crops
(c) growing fodder and rearing cattle, etc.
(d) growing fruit trees and fodder simultaneously
Ans. (d)
23. Sharbati Sonora variety of wheat was obtained by
(a) crossing with wild varieties of wheat
(b) hybridisation between wild varieties of wheat
(c) X-ray treatment
(d) irradiation of Sonora 64 with gamma rays
Ans. (d)
24. Which is the oldest breeding method?
(a) Hybridisation
(b) Selection
(c) Mutation
(d) Introduction
Ans. (d)
25. Removal of stamens in an inter-sexual flower before they dehisce is called
(a) protogyny
(b) protandry
(c) inducing male sterility
(d) emasculation
Ans. (d)
Wednesday, August 3, 2011
Physics objective test for Exams
Physics objective test for Exams
Physics Objective Questions And Answers Free
Physics - Online Multiple Choice
1. In a germanium semiconductor material used in transistors, mobility of electrons is 3900 cm2/V How much velocity do they have?
(a) 3900 m/s
(b) 7800 m/s
(c) 1000 m/s
(d) 4000 m/s
Ans. (a)
2. Curie temperature of. Iron is that temperature below which it is : -
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Electrically conducting
(c) Superconducting
(d) Radioactive
Ans. (a)
3. In radio reception, the strength of the received signal varies and to provide a constant output power, it is necessary to vary the gain power, it is necessary to vary the gain of the receiver. This is usually done by:
(a) a diode
(b) a pentode
(c) n-p-n transistor
(d) Automatic volume control
Ans. (b)
4. An electric charge is surrounded by several other electric charges. The force exerted by one of the surrounding charges on this charge:
(a) Decreases because of the other charges
(b) Increases because of the surrounding charges
(c) Is independent of the presence of other charges
(d) Depends on the position of other charges
Ans. (c)
5. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Pion — Meson
(b) Proton — Baryon
(c) Neutrins — Lepton
(d) Lambda — Meson
Ans. (d)
6. Which of the following factors do not affect the frequency stability of an oscillator?
(a) Output load
(b) Inter-element capacitances and stray capacitances
(c) Temperature variation
(d) Coil size
Ans. (a)
7. Which one of the following is a set of magic numbers?
(a) 1, 2, 8, 16, 20, 28
(b) 2, 8, 16, 20, 28, 50
(c) 8, 28, 50, 82, 100, 126
(d) 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82, 126
Ans. (d)
8. Carbon dioxide shows a Raman line at 1080 cm-1. Consider the, following statements in this regard:
1. The corresponding infrared absorption will be found at 1080 cm-1.
2. The corresponding infrared absorption band will be absent.
3. CO2 is a linear and symmetric molecule.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 alone is correct
(d) 3 alone is correct
Ans. (a)
9. The average binding energy per nucleon is 7.6 MeV for a heavy nucleus such as uranium while it is 8.5 MeV for nuclei with mass numbers around 110. The energy released. in binary fission of U—235 by slow neutrons will be approximately:
(a) 7.6 MeV
(b) 8.5 MeV
(c) 212.4 MeV
(d) 235 MeV
Ans. (c)
10. In a prism, the dispersion is related to the wavelength λ as
(a) λ-1
(b) λ-2
(c) λ-3
(d) λ-4
Ans. (c)
11. A light ray travels through media A and B having refractive indices of 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the thickness of the medium A is 4 cm and that of B is 6 cm, then the optical path length in the combined media will be:
(a) 7/3
(b) 12/3
(c) 37/3
(d) 43/3
Ans. (d)
12. When excited by a light of wavelength 4358 Å, a transparent substance produces a Stokes Raman frequency shift of 458 cm-1. The wavelength of the antistokes line is:
(a) 4058 Å
(b) 4274 Å
(c) 4448 Å
(d) 4548 Å
Ans. (b)
13. An ultrasonic sound pulse is sent vertically down the ocean waters and the echo is received 3 s later. The depth of the ocean at that place is approximately:
(a) 1.1 kin
(b) 2.2 km
(c) 3.3 km
(d) 4.4 km
Ans. (b)
14. When two tuning forks A and B are sounded together 6 beats/s are produced. The frequency of B is 320 Hz. If some wax is added to A and again sounded with B, again 6 beats/s are produced. The frequency of A is:
(a) 326 Hz
(b) 332 Hz
(c) 314 Hz
(d) 308 Hz
Ans. (a)
15. Two railway engines removing on parallel tracks in opposite direction, each with a speed of 72 km/h. The whistle of one engine blows a note of frequency 589 Hz. Given that the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, the frequency which will be heard by the driver of the other engine, just before crossing is
(a) 919 Hz
(b) 665 Hz
(c) 589 Hz
(d) 259 Hz
Ans. (b)
16. A thermos bottle containing coffee is vigorously shaken. If the coffee is considered as a system, then the temperature of the coffee will
(a) Increase slightly
(b) Fall
(c) Remain the same
(d) Never be determined
Ans. (a)
17. An open organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 300 Hz. The first overtone of this organ pipe is the same as the first overtone of a closed organ pipe. The length of the closed organ pipe is (assume velocity of sound in air as330m/s):
(a) 0.41m
(b) 0.78m
(c) 0.82m
(d) 0.90m
Ans. (a)
18. Steam at 100°C causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature
Because
(a) Steam is a gas
(b) Steam cannot do work
(c) Steam can provide more heat
(d) Steam is highly combustible
Ans. (c)
19. A container having some gas was kept in a moving train. The temperature of the
gas in the container will
(a) Increase slightly
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Become infinite
Ans. (a)
20. Two glass tumblers have been stuck together (one into the other). They can be
Separated by
(a) placing hot water in the inner tumbler
(b) placing the tumblers in cold water
(c) placing the outer tumbler in hot water
(d) hammering them vigorously
Ans. (c)
21. A test tube containing some water is surrounded by melting ice (pure). Then,
the water in the test tube will
(a) not freeze into ice
(b) freeze into ice
(c) boil ultimately
(d) become steam ultimately
Ans. (a)
22. Heat flows as a result of difference
(a) temperature
(b) weight
(c) mass
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
23. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 2000 g of water from
10°C to 50°C is
(a) 80 cal
(b) 30,000 cal
(c) 8000 cal
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
24. The unit of thermal capacity is
(a) cal/°C
(b) cal/g
(c) cal/g/°C
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
25. If the thermal capacity of a body is infinity, then
(a) Heat can never be added to it
(b) Heat can never be extracted from it
(c) The temperature of the body cannot be altered by adding or extracting any
amount of heat
(d) It has infinite amount of heat
Ans. (c)
Physics Objective Questions And Answers Free
Physics - Online Multiple Choice
1. In a germanium semiconductor material used in transistors, mobility of electrons is 3900 cm2/V How much velocity do they have?
(a) 3900 m/s
(b) 7800 m/s
(c) 1000 m/s
(d) 4000 m/s
Ans. (a)
2. Curie temperature of. Iron is that temperature below which it is : -
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Electrically conducting
(c) Superconducting
(d) Radioactive
Ans. (a)
3. In radio reception, the strength of the received signal varies and to provide a constant output power, it is necessary to vary the gain power, it is necessary to vary the gain of the receiver. This is usually done by:
(a) a diode
(b) a pentode
(c) n-p-n transistor
(d) Automatic volume control
Ans. (b)
4. An electric charge is surrounded by several other electric charges. The force exerted by one of the surrounding charges on this charge:
(a) Decreases because of the other charges
(b) Increases because of the surrounding charges
(c) Is independent of the presence of other charges
(d) Depends on the position of other charges
Ans. (c)
5. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Pion — Meson
(b) Proton — Baryon
(c) Neutrins — Lepton
(d) Lambda — Meson
Ans. (d)
6. Which of the following factors do not affect the frequency stability of an oscillator?
(a) Output load
(b) Inter-element capacitances and stray capacitances
(c) Temperature variation
(d) Coil size
Ans. (a)
7. Which one of the following is a set of magic numbers?
(a) 1, 2, 8, 16, 20, 28
(b) 2, 8, 16, 20, 28, 50
(c) 8, 28, 50, 82, 100, 126
(d) 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82, 126
Ans. (d)
8. Carbon dioxide shows a Raman line at 1080 cm-1. Consider the, following statements in this regard:
1. The corresponding infrared absorption will be found at 1080 cm-1.
2. The corresponding infrared absorption band will be absent.
3. CO2 is a linear and symmetric molecule.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 alone is correct
(d) 3 alone is correct
Ans. (a)
9. The average binding energy per nucleon is 7.6 MeV for a heavy nucleus such as uranium while it is 8.5 MeV for nuclei with mass numbers around 110. The energy released. in binary fission of U—235 by slow neutrons will be approximately:
(a) 7.6 MeV
(b) 8.5 MeV
(c) 212.4 MeV
(d) 235 MeV
Ans. (c)
10. In a prism, the dispersion is related to the wavelength λ as
(a) λ-1
(b) λ-2
(c) λ-3
(d) λ-4
Ans. (c)
11. A light ray travels through media A and B having refractive indices of 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the thickness of the medium A is 4 cm and that of B is 6 cm, then the optical path length in the combined media will be:
(a) 7/3
(b) 12/3
(c) 37/3
(d) 43/3
Ans. (d)
12. When excited by a light of wavelength 4358 Å, a transparent substance produces a Stokes Raman frequency shift of 458 cm-1. The wavelength of the antistokes line is:
(a) 4058 Å
(b) 4274 Å
(c) 4448 Å
(d) 4548 Å
Ans. (b)
13. An ultrasonic sound pulse is sent vertically down the ocean waters and the echo is received 3 s later. The depth of the ocean at that place is approximately:
(a) 1.1 kin
(b) 2.2 km
(c) 3.3 km
(d) 4.4 km
Ans. (b)
14. When two tuning forks A and B are sounded together 6 beats/s are produced. The frequency of B is 320 Hz. If some wax is added to A and again sounded with B, again 6 beats/s are produced. The frequency of A is:
(a) 326 Hz
(b) 332 Hz
(c) 314 Hz
(d) 308 Hz
Ans. (a)
15. Two railway engines removing on parallel tracks in opposite direction, each with a speed of 72 km/h. The whistle of one engine blows a note of frequency 589 Hz. Given that the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, the frequency which will be heard by the driver of the other engine, just before crossing is
(a) 919 Hz
(b) 665 Hz
(c) 589 Hz
(d) 259 Hz
Ans. (b)
16. A thermos bottle containing coffee is vigorously shaken. If the coffee is considered as a system, then the temperature of the coffee will
(a) Increase slightly
(b) Fall
(c) Remain the same
(d) Never be determined
Ans. (a)
17. An open organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 300 Hz. The first overtone of this organ pipe is the same as the first overtone of a closed organ pipe. The length of the closed organ pipe is (assume velocity of sound in air as330m/s):
(a) 0.41m
(b) 0.78m
(c) 0.82m
(d) 0.90m
Ans. (a)
18. Steam at 100°C causes more severe burns than water at the same temperature
Because
(a) Steam is a gas
(b) Steam cannot do work
(c) Steam can provide more heat
(d) Steam is highly combustible
Ans. (c)
19. A container having some gas was kept in a moving train. The temperature of the
gas in the container will
(a) Increase slightly
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Become infinite
Ans. (a)
20. Two glass tumblers have been stuck together (one into the other). They can be
Separated by
(a) placing hot water in the inner tumbler
(b) placing the tumblers in cold water
(c) placing the outer tumbler in hot water
(d) hammering them vigorously
Ans. (c)
21. A test tube containing some water is surrounded by melting ice (pure). Then,
the water in the test tube will
(a) not freeze into ice
(b) freeze into ice
(c) boil ultimately
(d) become steam ultimately
Ans. (a)
22. Heat flows as a result of difference
(a) temperature
(b) weight
(c) mass
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
23. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 2000 g of water from
10°C to 50°C is
(a) 80 cal
(b) 30,000 cal
(c) 8000 cal
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
24. The unit of thermal capacity is
(a) cal/°C
(b) cal/g
(c) cal/g/°C
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
25. If the thermal capacity of a body is infinity, then
(a) Heat can never be added to it
(b) Heat can never be extracted from it
(c) The temperature of the body cannot be altered by adding or extracting any
amount of heat
(d) It has infinite amount of heat
Ans. (c)
Tuesday, August 2, 2011
Sample Multiple Choice Exam Questions Psychology
Sample Multiple Choice Exam Questions Psychology
Psychology Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
Psychology Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper
Psychology
1. The sense of balance is controlled by:
(A) The semicircular canals
(B) The vestibule
(C) The organ of corti
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
2. Which scale makes it possible to say that the weight of a boy in the sixth grade is times that of a boy in second grade?
(A) The interval scale
(B) The ratio scale
(C) The nominal scale
(D) The ordinal scale
Ans. (B)
3. The nerve impulse is transmitted across the synapse by:
(A) Chemical intermediary
(B) Electrical activity
(C) Electrochemical activity
(D) Any of the above
Ans. (A)
4. χ (chi-square) test can be used in situations in which—
(A) K = 2, but some expected frequencies are less than 5
(B) It is greater than 1, but more than 20% of frequencies are smaller than 5
(C) Any expected frequency is smaller than 1
(D) None of the above is found to be a fact
Ans. (D)
5. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data is not—
(A) Is X related to ‘Y’ ?
(B) How is X related to Y
(C) How does X affect the dependent variable Y at different level of another independent variable K or M?
(D) How is X by K related to M?
Ans. (A)
6. Anything that elicite a response without prior learning is a—
(A) Conditioned stimulus
(B) Positive reinforcement
(C) Negative reinforcement
(D) Unconditioned stimulus
Ans. (D)
7. Calculate chi-square value from the following and write the correct answer—
(A) 175
(B) 17.25
(C) 12.7
(D) 17.0
Ans. (C)
8. When Mohari was one year old, he didn’t walk properly but reaching to two he moves perfectly, what was the reason?
(A) Maturation
(B) Learning
(C) Practice
(D) Growth
Ans. (A)
9, Interview is categorized in—
(A) Observation
(B) Projection
(C) Conversation
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
10. Salivation produced by putting meat powder on dog’s tongue in case or Pavlov is a—
(A) Conditioned response
(B) Unconditioned response
(C) Learned response
(D) Positive response
Ans. (B)
11. First order conditioning is the result of—
(A) Primary reinforcement
(B) Natural reinforcement
(C) Natural response
(D) Positive reinforcement
Ans. (A)
12. The scale of measurement which provides information about how people vary on a particular attribute, but fails to tell how high or low they are in an absolute sense is the—
(A) Ordinal scale
(B) Nominal scale
(C) Interval scale
(D) Ratio scale
Ans. (C)
13. The principle of learning that an act which has a satisfying effect will be learned more quickly than one which has a dissatisfying
effect was put forth by—
(A) Watson
(B) Thorndike
(C) Skinner
(D) Gulthrle
Ans. (B)
14. Which of the following is not the reason underling the importance of research in Psychology—
(A) It is a tool for verifying, testing and validating knowledge
(B) It is a potent means of creating a new knowledge
(C) It has moved to the centre of the behavioral sciences
(D) It provides answer to many problems faced by psychologists
Ans. (C)
15. In which test there is a sufficient time limit for giving answer by all subjects?
(A) Essay test
(B) Power test
(C) Speed test
(D) Objective test
Ans. (B)
16. For efficient learning the learning task should be—
(A) Rewarding
(B) Interesting
(C) Adjusted to the learner’s level of maturity
(D) Lower than the learner’s level of maturity
Ans. (C)
17. A projective tests as technique is a method of collecting data about an idividua1’s personality which—
(A) Uses a short structured interview schedule
(B) Uses direct observation of individual’s behavior
(C) Uses unstructured stimulus situations such as ink-blots, photographs etc. to elicit individual’s reactions
(D) Uses on the spot participant observations for measuring an individual’s personality qualities.
Ans. (C)
18. Which pair is matched correctly?
(a) Habit strength — SHR
(b) Reaction Potential — SER
(c) Reactive inhibition—SIR
(d) Reaction Time—STR
Codes—
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b and d
(C) b, c and d
(D) a, c and d
Ans. (B)
19. Which one is incorrect statement according to cross-sectional method?
(A) Sufficient saving of time
(B) Long time co-ordination between researchers
(C) Sufficient saving of money
(D) Collection of data for a particular period
Ans. (B)
20. If the US and CS are more closely paired, classical conditioning becomes more effective. The statement is—
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Sometimes false, sometimes true
(D) Neither true, nor false
Ans. (A)
21. Which is not correct about non-parametric tests of significance?
(A) They are distribution-free-techniques of analysis
(B) They make no assumptions about the parameters
(C) They do make certain assumptions, but there are fewer and less stringent
(D) They assume that groups should be homogeneous
Ans. (D)
22 An animal learns by trial and error when—
(A) There is a strong motivation
(B) The goal is clear
(C) The problem cannot be solved easily
(D) All of the above conditions are fulfilled
Ans. (D)
23. An eventual aspect of all learning is—
(A) Emotional
(B) Imitation
(C) Association
(D) Motivation
Ans. (D)
24. An important social consideration in evaluating the significance of the research problem is—
(A) The genuine interest of the researcher in the problem
(B) Practical value of the findings for educators, parents and social workers etc.
(C) Necessary skills, abilities and background of knowledge of the researches
(D) Possibility of obtaining reliable and valid data by the researcher.
Ans. (B)
25. An interval scale of measurement has all the following characteristic except—
(A) The rank ordering of objects is known with respect to an attribute
(B) The distance from a rational zero is known for each person
(C) It is known how far apart the objects are from one another with respect to the attribute
(D) No information is available about the absolute magnitude of an attribute for any object
Ans. (B)
Psychology Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
Psychology Multiple Choice Questions Test Paper
Psychology
1. The sense of balance is controlled by:
(A) The semicircular canals
(B) The vestibule
(C) The organ of corti
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
2. Which scale makes it possible to say that the weight of a boy in the sixth grade is times that of a boy in second grade?
(A) The interval scale
(B) The ratio scale
(C) The nominal scale
(D) The ordinal scale
Ans. (B)
3. The nerve impulse is transmitted across the synapse by:
(A) Chemical intermediary
(B) Electrical activity
(C) Electrochemical activity
(D) Any of the above
Ans. (A)
4. χ (chi-square) test can be used in situations in which—
(A) K = 2, but some expected frequencies are less than 5
(B) It is greater than 1, but more than 20% of frequencies are smaller than 5
(C) Any expected frequency is smaller than 1
(D) None of the above is found to be a fact
Ans. (D)
5. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data is not—
(A) Is X related to ‘Y’ ?
(B) How is X related to Y
(C) How does X affect the dependent variable Y at different level of another independent variable K or M?
(D) How is X by K related to M?
Ans. (A)
6. Anything that elicite a response without prior learning is a—
(A) Conditioned stimulus
(B) Positive reinforcement
(C) Negative reinforcement
(D) Unconditioned stimulus
Ans. (D)
7. Calculate chi-square value from the following and write the correct answer—
(A) 175
(B) 17.25
(C) 12.7
(D) 17.0
Ans. (C)
8. When Mohari was one year old, he didn’t walk properly but reaching to two he moves perfectly, what was the reason?
(A) Maturation
(B) Learning
(C) Practice
(D) Growth
Ans. (A)
9, Interview is categorized in—
(A) Observation
(B) Projection
(C) Conversation
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
10. Salivation produced by putting meat powder on dog’s tongue in case or Pavlov is a—
(A) Conditioned response
(B) Unconditioned response
(C) Learned response
(D) Positive response
Ans. (B)
11. First order conditioning is the result of—
(A) Primary reinforcement
(B) Natural reinforcement
(C) Natural response
(D) Positive reinforcement
Ans. (A)
12. The scale of measurement which provides information about how people vary on a particular attribute, but fails to tell how high or low they are in an absolute sense is the—
(A) Ordinal scale
(B) Nominal scale
(C) Interval scale
(D) Ratio scale
Ans. (C)
13. The principle of learning that an act which has a satisfying effect will be learned more quickly than one which has a dissatisfying
effect was put forth by—
(A) Watson
(B) Thorndike
(C) Skinner
(D) Gulthrle
Ans. (B)
14. Which of the following is not the reason underling the importance of research in Psychology—
(A) It is a tool for verifying, testing and validating knowledge
(B) It is a potent means of creating a new knowledge
(C) It has moved to the centre of the behavioral sciences
(D) It provides answer to many problems faced by psychologists
Ans. (C)
15. In which test there is a sufficient time limit for giving answer by all subjects?
(A) Essay test
(B) Power test
(C) Speed test
(D) Objective test
Ans. (B)
16. For efficient learning the learning task should be—
(A) Rewarding
(B) Interesting
(C) Adjusted to the learner’s level of maturity
(D) Lower than the learner’s level of maturity
Ans. (C)
17. A projective tests as technique is a method of collecting data about an idividua1’s personality which—
(A) Uses a short structured interview schedule
(B) Uses direct observation of individual’s behavior
(C) Uses unstructured stimulus situations such as ink-blots, photographs etc. to elicit individual’s reactions
(D) Uses on the spot participant observations for measuring an individual’s personality qualities.
Ans. (C)
18. Which pair is matched correctly?
(a) Habit strength — SHR
(b) Reaction Potential — SER
(c) Reactive inhibition—SIR
(d) Reaction Time—STR
Codes—
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b and d
(C) b, c and d
(D) a, c and d
Ans. (B)
19. Which one is incorrect statement according to cross-sectional method?
(A) Sufficient saving of time
(B) Long time co-ordination between researchers
(C) Sufficient saving of money
(D) Collection of data for a particular period
Ans. (B)
20. If the US and CS are more closely paired, classical conditioning becomes more effective. The statement is—
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Sometimes false, sometimes true
(D) Neither true, nor false
Ans. (A)
21. Which is not correct about non-parametric tests of significance?
(A) They are distribution-free-techniques of analysis
(B) They make no assumptions about the parameters
(C) They do make certain assumptions, but there are fewer and less stringent
(D) They assume that groups should be homogeneous
Ans. (D)
22 An animal learns by trial and error when—
(A) There is a strong motivation
(B) The goal is clear
(C) The problem cannot be solved easily
(D) All of the above conditions are fulfilled
Ans. (D)
23. An eventual aspect of all learning is—
(A) Emotional
(B) Imitation
(C) Association
(D) Motivation
Ans. (D)
24. An important social consideration in evaluating the significance of the research problem is—
(A) The genuine interest of the researcher in the problem
(B) Practical value of the findings for educators, parents and social workers etc.
(C) Necessary skills, abilities and background of knowledge of the researches
(D) Possibility of obtaining reliable and valid data by the researcher.
Ans. (B)
25. An interval scale of measurement has all the following characteristic except—
(A) The rank ordering of objects is known with respect to an attribute
(B) The distance from a rational zero is known for each person
(C) It is known how far apart the objects are from one another with respect to the attribute
(D) No information is available about the absolute magnitude of an attribute for any object
Ans. (B)
Sunday, July 31, 2011
electrical engineering MCQ Test
electrical engineering MCQ Test
Engg Multiple Choice Questions
Electrical Engineering objective questions MCQ for graduate Engineer
1. The frequency of an LC circuit of a tuned base- tuned emitter type of coupled oscillator having resonant frequency of crystal as a is
(a) slightly less than ω
(b) equal to ω
(c) slightly more than ω
(d) at least 2 ω
Ans:-A
2. In an operational amplifier the bandwidth (B) in terms of rise time (t) is given ’by’
(a) 0.35 / tr
(b) 1 / 0.35 tr
(c) 0.35 tr
(d) tr / 0.35
Ans:-B
3. The figure of merit of a logic family is given by the product of
(a) gain and bandwidth
(b) propagation delay time and power dissipation
(c) fanout and propagation delay time
(d) noise margin and power dissipation
Ans:-A
4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I
(Boolean statements is true)
A. AØB=O
B. A+B=O
C. A .B=O
D. AØB=l
List II
(Conditions under which)
1. A≠B
2. A=B
3. A=l and B=l
4. A=l and B=O
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans:-C
5. For an energy signal g(t) and its time-shifted version g (t- r), the
(a) amplitude spectra are identical and their phase spectra are also identical
(b) amplitude spectra are identical but their phase spectra are different
(c) amplitude spectra are different but their phase spectra are identical
(d) amplitude spectra are different and their phase spectra are also different
Ans:-B
6. If the number of bits in a PCM system is increased from ii to rn+ 1, the signal-to-quanhisation noise ratio will increase by a factor
(a) (n+1) / n
(b) (n+1)2/n2
(c) 2
(d) 4
Ans:-B
7. A 600 Hz signal is sampled at a rate of 1000 samples per second. The frequency components of sampled signal will consist of
(a) 400 Hz and 600 Hz
(b) 400 Hz, 600 Hz and 1200 Hz.
(c) 600 Hz, 800 Hz, 1000 Hz and. 1200 Hz
(d) 600 Hz, 1000 Hz, 1200 Hz and 1400 Hz
Ans:-A
8. Consider the following statements regarding colour television:
1. Only chrominance signals occupy the full bandwidth.
2. Only luminance signals occupy the full bandwidth.
3. All the three signals occupy the full bandwidth.
4. The bandwidths of both the chrominance signals are equal
5. The bandwidth of luminance signals is smaller than that of the chrominance signals.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 alone is correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 5 alone is correct
Ans:-A
9. Instrument Leading System (ILS) and Ground Controlled Approach (GCA) are aircraft landing systems, wherein
(a) both use radar units on the ground
(b) both use special receivers on board the aircraft
(c) ILS uses special receivers in the aircraft and GCA uses radar units on the ground
(d) ILS uses radar units on the ground and GCA uses special receivers on the ground
Ans:-D
10. The standard test tone for audio portion of CCIR circuits is
(a) 0 d B m at 1000 Hz
(b) —3OdBmat800Hz
(c) 0 d B m at 400 Hz
(d) —3OdBmat400Hz
Ans:-A
11. In dc machine, the field system has to be provided on stator unlike synchronous machines wherein it could be on any member, because
(a) it reduces field structure iron losses
(b) it gives more uniform air-gap flux distribution
(c) commentator action is not possible otherwise
(d) dc machines are comparatively low rating machines
Ans:-D
12. In a dc generator operating on load with its brushes on the geometrical neutral axis (GNA), the magnetic neutral axis (MNA) is shifted in the direction of rotation
Now, if the brushes are given a lead of 90° (electrical), then the MNA will
(a) shift forward by 90°
(b) shift forward by more than 90°
(c) shift forward by less than 90
(d) coincide with the GNA
Ans:-D
13. A cumulatively compounded dc motor runs at 1000 rpm at no-load. On full load, the flux increases by 10%, whereas the full load drop in the combined resistance of the armature and series field is 5% Neglecting magnetic saturation, the full load speed will be nearly
(a) 863 rpm
(b) 909 rpm
(c) 1000rpm
(d) 1050rpm
Ans:-C
14. A dc over compound generator is supplying power to an infinite bus. If the prime mover is accidentally cut off, the dc machine will
(a) stop running
(b) run as cumulatively compounded motor in reverse direction
(c) run as differentially compounded motor in reverse direction
(d) run as differentially compounded motor in same direction
Ans:-C
15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(Load pf)
A. Zero leading
B. Unity
C. Zero lagging
D. Zero with armature terminals suddenly short-circuited
List II
(Nature of armature flux in an alternator)
1. Demagnetising
2. Magnetising
3. Cross magnetizing
4. Initially constant, demagnetizing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans:-B
16. A dc shunt motor is run under the following conditions:
1. Normal voltage with no additional resistance in armature or field circuits.
2. 50% normal voltage with no additional resistance in armature or field circuits.
3. Normal voltage with a small external resistance in the armature circuit of a value equal to the armature resistance.
4. Normal speed of the motor would increase in the sequence
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,4,3,2
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 2,3,1,4
Ans:-B
17. Consider the following statements about a three- phase synchronous generator synchronized to an infinite bus when its mechanical input is increased gradually with field current held constant:
1. The power factor of the current supplied becomes more lagging.
2. The power factor of the current supplied improves.
3. The power factor remains unity.
4. The load angle is increased.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 alone is correct
(b) 2 alone is correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Ans:-A
18. Which of the following will change in a three- phase synchronous motor, as a consequence of excitation variations?
1. Pull-out torque
2. Torque angle
3. Magnitude and power factor of stator current
4. Output power
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:-B
19. Following a sudden short-circuit at the terminals of a 3-phase unloaded synchronous generator, the initial effect of the pole-face damper winding, is to
(a) establish the armature flux through the direct-axis magnetic circuit of the machine
(b) allow only partial linkage of the armature flux with the main field winding
(c) confine the armature flux to completely link the damper winding
(d) Repel the armature flux and confine it to the leakage flux path in the air-gap.
Ans:-C
20. Consider the following statements about single- phase reluctance motor:
1. The starting torque is a function of rotor position.
2. The torque developed at sub synchronous speeds varies sinusoidally.
3. Starting is asynchronous but running is synchronous.
4. It pulls synchronism on switching on dc excitation.
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans:-D
Engg Multiple Choice Questions
Electrical Engineering objective questions MCQ for graduate Engineer
1. The frequency of an LC circuit of a tuned base- tuned emitter type of coupled oscillator having resonant frequency of crystal as a is
(a) slightly less than ω
(b) equal to ω
(c) slightly more than ω
(d) at least 2 ω
Ans:-A
2. In an operational amplifier the bandwidth (B) in terms of rise time (t) is given ’by’
(a) 0.35 / tr
(b) 1 / 0.35 tr
(c) 0.35 tr
(d) tr / 0.35
Ans:-B
3. The figure of merit of a logic family is given by the product of
(a) gain and bandwidth
(b) propagation delay time and power dissipation
(c) fanout and propagation delay time
(d) noise margin and power dissipation
Ans:-A
4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I
(Boolean statements is true)
A. AØB=O
B. A+B=O
C. A .B=O
D. AØB=l
List II
(Conditions under which)
1. A≠B
2. A=B
3. A=l and B=l
4. A=l and B=O
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans:-C
5. For an energy signal g(t) and its time-shifted version g (t- r), the
(a) amplitude spectra are identical and their phase spectra are also identical
(b) amplitude spectra are identical but their phase spectra are different
(c) amplitude spectra are different but their phase spectra are identical
(d) amplitude spectra are different and their phase spectra are also different
Ans:-B
6. If the number of bits in a PCM system is increased from ii to rn+ 1, the signal-to-quanhisation noise ratio will increase by a factor
(a) (n+1) / n
(b) (n+1)2/n2
(c) 2
(d) 4
Ans:-B
7. A 600 Hz signal is sampled at a rate of 1000 samples per second. The frequency components of sampled signal will consist of
(a) 400 Hz and 600 Hz
(b) 400 Hz, 600 Hz and 1200 Hz.
(c) 600 Hz, 800 Hz, 1000 Hz and. 1200 Hz
(d) 600 Hz, 1000 Hz, 1200 Hz and 1400 Hz
Ans:-A
8. Consider the following statements regarding colour television:
1. Only chrominance signals occupy the full bandwidth.
2. Only luminance signals occupy the full bandwidth.
3. All the three signals occupy the full bandwidth.
4. The bandwidths of both the chrominance signals are equal
5. The bandwidth of luminance signals is smaller than that of the chrominance signals.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 alone is correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 5 alone is correct
Ans:-A
9. Instrument Leading System (ILS) and Ground Controlled Approach (GCA) are aircraft landing systems, wherein
(a) both use radar units on the ground
(b) both use special receivers on board the aircraft
(c) ILS uses special receivers in the aircraft and GCA uses radar units on the ground
(d) ILS uses radar units on the ground and GCA uses special receivers on the ground
Ans:-D
10. The standard test tone for audio portion of CCIR circuits is
(a) 0 d B m at 1000 Hz
(b) —3OdBmat800Hz
(c) 0 d B m at 400 Hz
(d) —3OdBmat400Hz
Ans:-A
11. In dc machine, the field system has to be provided on stator unlike synchronous machines wherein it could be on any member, because
(a) it reduces field structure iron losses
(b) it gives more uniform air-gap flux distribution
(c) commentator action is not possible otherwise
(d) dc machines are comparatively low rating machines
Ans:-D
12. In a dc generator operating on load with its brushes on the geometrical neutral axis (GNA), the magnetic neutral axis (MNA) is shifted in the direction of rotation
Now, if the brushes are given a lead of 90° (electrical), then the MNA will
(a) shift forward by 90°
(b) shift forward by more than 90°
(c) shift forward by less than 90
(d) coincide with the GNA
Ans:-D
13. A cumulatively compounded dc motor runs at 1000 rpm at no-load. On full load, the flux increases by 10%, whereas the full load drop in the combined resistance of the armature and series field is 5% Neglecting magnetic saturation, the full load speed will be nearly
(a) 863 rpm
(b) 909 rpm
(c) 1000rpm
(d) 1050rpm
Ans:-C
14. A dc over compound generator is supplying power to an infinite bus. If the prime mover is accidentally cut off, the dc machine will
(a) stop running
(b) run as cumulatively compounded motor in reverse direction
(c) run as differentially compounded motor in reverse direction
(d) run as differentially compounded motor in same direction
Ans:-C
15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(Load pf)
A. Zero leading
B. Unity
C. Zero lagging
D. Zero with armature terminals suddenly short-circuited
List II
(Nature of armature flux in an alternator)
1. Demagnetising
2. Magnetising
3. Cross magnetizing
4. Initially constant, demagnetizing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans:-B
16. A dc shunt motor is run under the following conditions:
1. Normal voltage with no additional resistance in armature or field circuits.
2. 50% normal voltage with no additional resistance in armature or field circuits.
3. Normal voltage with a small external resistance in the armature circuit of a value equal to the armature resistance.
4. Normal speed of the motor would increase in the sequence
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,4,3,2
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 2,3,1,4
Ans:-B
17. Consider the following statements about a three- phase synchronous generator synchronized to an infinite bus when its mechanical input is increased gradually with field current held constant:
1. The power factor of the current supplied becomes more lagging.
2. The power factor of the current supplied improves.
3. The power factor remains unity.
4. The load angle is increased.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 alone is correct
(b) 2 alone is correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Ans:-A
18. Which of the following will change in a three- phase synchronous motor, as a consequence of excitation variations?
1. Pull-out torque
2. Torque angle
3. Magnitude and power factor of stator current
4. Output power
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:-B
19. Following a sudden short-circuit at the terminals of a 3-phase unloaded synchronous generator, the initial effect of the pole-face damper winding, is to
(a) establish the armature flux through the direct-axis magnetic circuit of the machine
(b) allow only partial linkage of the armature flux with the main field winding
(c) confine the armature flux to completely link the damper winding
(d) Repel the armature flux and confine it to the leakage flux path in the air-gap.
Ans:-C
20. Consider the following statements about single- phase reluctance motor:
1. The starting torque is a function of rotor position.
2. The torque developed at sub synchronous speeds varies sinusoidally.
3. Starting is asynchronous but running is synchronous.
4. It pulls synchronism on switching on dc excitation.
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans:-D
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