Free Objective Solved Questions For Nursing jobs Exams
Biology model Question papers with Answers for Nursing jobs
1. Haversian system is typically found in bones of
(a) Fishes
(b) Ayes
(c) Reptiles
(d) Mammals
Ans. (d)
2. The actively dividing layer of columnar cells in the epidermis of man is called as the
(a) Stratum granulosum
(b) Stratum lucidum
(c) Stratum malpighi
(d) Stratum comeum
Ans. (c)
3. The bone of a mammal contains Haversian canals, which are connected by transverse canals known as
(a) Semicircular canals
(b) Inguinal canals
(c) Volkmann’s canals
(d) Bidder’s canals
Ans. (c)
4. Horns of most mammals are composed of
(a) Bones
(b) Cartilage
(c) Keratin
(d) Chitin
Ans. (c)
5. Blood is
(a) Acidic
(b) Alkaline
(c) Variable
(d) Neutral
Ans. (b)
6. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was put forth by
(a) De Vries
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) Galton
Ans. (b)
7. Mammalian erythrocytes are
(a) circular
(b) Biconcave
(c) Non-nucleated
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
8. Gennplasm theory was given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Weismann
(c) Darwin
(d) De Vries
Ans. (b)
9. Life span of RBC is
(a) 50 days
(b) 75 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 100 days
Ans. (c)
10. The biggest opponent of Lamarck was
(a) G. Cuvier
(b) A. Weismann
(c) I. Pavlov
(d) Kamrer
Ans. (b)
11. Basic idea of organic evolution is
(a) Cosmic evolution
(b) Descent with modification
(c) Special creation
(d) Spontaneous generation
Ans. (b)
12. All of the following influenced Dw1N as he synthesised the concept of natural selection except
(a) The finches of the Galapagos
(b) Malthus’s essay on the principle of population
(c) The results of artificial selection
(d) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
Ans. (d)
13. The Galapagos Islands are associated with the visit of
(a) Jean Lamarck
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Gregor Mendel
(d) Alfred Wallace
Ans. (b)
14. Which one of the following blood pigments contains copper?
(a) Haemoerythrin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Chlorocruorin
(d) Haemoglobin
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following was most influential upon Darwin’s formulation of theory of natural selection?
(a) De Vries concept of mutation
(b) Wallace’s paper on survival
(c) Malthus’s essay on population
(d) Lamarck’s on inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following tissues in a human being uses the greatest amount of energy?
(a) Vascular tissue
(b) Muscular tissue
(c) Nervous tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue
Ans. (b)
17. ‘Survival of the fittest’ was used by
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(c) Hugo DeVries
(d) Herbert Spencer
Ans. (d)
18. Striped muscle fiber has
(a) Many nuclei
(b) Two nuclei
(c) No nuclei
(d) One nucleus
Ans. (a)
19. After observing the variations HUGO DE VRIES first of all described the mutation in
(a) Oenothera lamarl.4ana
(b) Neurospora crassa
(c) Pisum sativum
(d) Drosophila melanogaster
Ans. (a)
20. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) Lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)
21. When we lift hand
(a) The triceps contracts and the biceps relaxes
(b) The biceps contracts and the triceps relaxes
(c) Both biceps and triceps contract
(d) Both biceps and triceps relax
Ans. (b)
22. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) Can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) Can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) Are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) Efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)
23. Measurement of 1ate of oxygen utilization by a unit volume of water over a period of time is to measure
(a) Biochemical oxygen demand
(b) Biosynthetic pathway
(c) Biogas generation
(d) Fermentation
Ans. (a)
24. The strongest muscle in the body is present in
(a) Arm
(b) Jaw
(c) Thigh
(d) Neck
Ans. (b)
25. The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and Chernobyl tragedies respectively occurred where and at which time?
(a) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1990
(b) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1988
(c) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1986
(d) Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988
Ans. (c)
Showing posts with label Zoology. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Zoology. Show all posts
Tuesday, August 30, 2011
Wednesday, May 18, 2011
Assertion Reason MCQ Biology
Assertion Reason MCQ Biology
assertion reason Biology test
Assertion-Reason Multiple-Choice Zoology Biology
1. Assertion (A): In citric acid cycle, when succinate is oxidized to fumarate, a molecule of carbon dioxide is lost.
Reason (R): When succinate is oxidized to fumarate, electrons and protons are passed to FAD reducing it toFADH2.
Ans. (d)
2. Assertion (A): Before the origin of life, the atmosphere on earth was deducing in nature.
Reason (R): There was a great deal of volcanic activity at that time.
Ans. (b)
3. Assertion (A): RNA polymerases can synthesize RNA molecules from DNA template in both 5-3 and 3-5 directions.
Reason (R): RNA polymerases can slide in either direction along a DNA template.
Ans. (d)
4. Assertion (A): In sycon (Scypha), only self fertilization occurs.
Reason (R): In sycon, special sex organs are lacking.
Ans. (d)
5. Assertion (A): In prokaryotes, the translation begins on m-RNA before transcription is completed.
Reason (R): The triplet codons in prokaryotic m-RNA are transcribed from the sense strand of DNA and subsequently are translated continuously from the 3’ — OH end to the 5’ — PO4 end
Ans. (c)
6. Assertion (A): In the zygote, there is no cytoplasmic contribution from paternal side.
Reason (R): The cytoplasm of the sperm is discarded just before fertilization.
Ans. (a)
7. Assertion (A): Only the male offspring of the hemophilic father suffers from the disease.
Reason (R): Hemophilia is an X-Linked dominant disease.
Ans. (c)
8. Assertion (A): Nucleolus is the site for rRNA synthesis.
Reason (R): rRNA is needed for its function within the nucleus.
Ans. (b)
9. Assertion (A): Glycine is an optically active amino acid.
Reason (R): The a-carbon in glycine is asymmetric.
Ans. (d)
10. Assertion (A): Increase in the atmospheric temperature results in higher relative humidity.
Reason (R): High ambient temperature increases the capacity of the air to retain moisture.
Ans. (d)
assertion reason Biology test
Assertion-Reason Multiple-Choice Zoology Biology
1. Assertion (A): In citric acid cycle, when succinate is oxidized to fumarate, a molecule of carbon dioxide is lost.
Reason (R): When succinate is oxidized to fumarate, electrons and protons are passed to FAD reducing it toFADH2.
Ans. (d)
2. Assertion (A): Before the origin of life, the atmosphere on earth was deducing in nature.
Reason (R): There was a great deal of volcanic activity at that time.
Ans. (b)
3. Assertion (A): RNA polymerases can synthesize RNA molecules from DNA template in both 5-3 and 3-5 directions.
Reason (R): RNA polymerases can slide in either direction along a DNA template.
Ans. (d)
4. Assertion (A): In sycon (Scypha), only self fertilization occurs.
Reason (R): In sycon, special sex organs are lacking.
Ans. (d)
5. Assertion (A): In prokaryotes, the translation begins on m-RNA before transcription is completed.
Reason (R): The triplet codons in prokaryotic m-RNA are transcribed from the sense strand of DNA and subsequently are translated continuously from the 3’ — OH end to the 5’ — PO4 end
Ans. (c)
6. Assertion (A): In the zygote, there is no cytoplasmic contribution from paternal side.
Reason (R): The cytoplasm of the sperm is discarded just before fertilization.
Ans. (a)
7. Assertion (A): Only the male offspring of the hemophilic father suffers from the disease.
Reason (R): Hemophilia is an X-Linked dominant disease.
Ans. (c)
8. Assertion (A): Nucleolus is the site for rRNA synthesis.
Reason (R): rRNA is needed for its function within the nucleus.
Ans. (b)
9. Assertion (A): Glycine is an optically active amino acid.
Reason (R): The a-carbon in glycine is asymmetric.
Ans. (d)
10. Assertion (A): Increase in the atmospheric temperature results in higher relative humidity.
Reason (R): High ambient temperature increases the capacity of the air to retain moisture.
Ans. (d)
Friday, May 13, 2011
Zoology Assertion and Reason type objective questions
Zoology Assertion and Reason type objective questions
ZOOLOGYObjective questions multiple choice type
Assertion and Reason type Objective Questions
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): A polyspermy is being slowly blocked, the cortical grannules explode and release their contents into the perivitelline space.
Reason (R): Quick blocking of polyspermy sets in depolarization of the egg plasma lemma and mobilization as Ca +2 from stores within the egg.
Ans. (b)
2. Assertion (A): Knowledge derived from geology has led to the belief that on our planet there have been no deposits without traces of life.
Reason (R): The existence of life wherever circumstances warrant its existence, is one of the characteristic features of the universe.
Ans. (b)
3. Assertion (A): In ascidians, the tadpole larva undergoes retrogressive metamorphosis to attain the adult stage.
Reason (R): The limbs of the larva gradually disappear to reach the sessile life.
Ans. (a)
4. Assertion (A): Gene is a biological entity-a heritable function detected by observing the effect of a mutation. i gene consists of all the DNA sequences necessary t produces a single peptide or RNA product.
Reason (R): The Gene is a single contiguous protein encoding stretch of DNA.
Ans.(a)
5. Assertion (A): After the addition of the last amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain, the protein syntheses terminate.
Reason (R): The terminator codon interacts with release factor(s) and the resultant RF terminator codon ribosome complex effectively blocks further chain elongation.
Ans.(b)
6. Assertion (A): The presence of contractile vacuole is very essential in Amoeba.
Reason (R): If the excess water is not removed, Amoeba would soon swell and burst.
Ans. (a)
7. Assertion (A): Cicada belongs to class Insecta.
Reason (R): Male sings loudly by two sets of vibrating plates on fore part of abdomen.
Ans. (b)
8. Assertion (A): Neopilina, discovered in 1952 is a primitive living mollusc.
Reason (R): Absence of shell is considered a primitive feature for a living molluscan form.
Ans. (c)
9. Assertion (A): Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between reptiles and modern birds.
Reason (R): It possesses pneumatized bones an avian character and opposable first toe of foot a reptilian character.
Ans. (c)
10. Assertion (A): The conjugation in Paramecium corresponds to cross-fertilization of higher animals.
Reason (R): The conjugation in process of reconstruction of nuclei involving the fusion of gametic nuclei.
Ans. (d)
11. Assertion (A): Cuticle of Ascaris is well-developed in structure and chemical organization.
Reason (R): The parasite has to protect itself from the injurious effects of the host’s chyme.
Ans. (c)
12. Assertion (A): Hirudo medicinalis sucks blood from different vertebrates.
Reason (R): Its buccal cavity includes three jaws.
Ans. (a)
13. Assertion (A): In Herdmania, the test is provided with vascular ampullae.
Reason. (R): These structures serve as means of excretion of waste products of the body.
Ans. (c)
14. Assertion (A): Anguilla anguilla can travel on damp grass.
Reason (R): Anguilla anguilla has vascular areas in the skin and its opercular openings are very small so that it retains water in the branchial chamber during its journey on land.
Ans. (a)
15. Assertion (A): In Amniota there is twelve pairs of cranial nerves instead often.
Reason (R): Amniotes have two additional segments in the head region.
Ans. (a)
16. Assertion (A): The eyes of nocturnal, cave and deep water animals have only rods in their retina.
Reason (R): Rods detect differences in the intensity of light but do not discriminate finer details of objects.
Ans. (b)
17. Assertion (A): In Branchiostoma, the origin of coelom is enterocoelic.
Reason (R): In Branchiostoma, coelom is formed from the splitting of mesodermal sheet.
Ans. (c)
18. Assertion (A): Cell movement during gastrulation is called morphogenetic movement.
Reason (R): Change of shape of embryo occurs by morphogenetic movement.
Ans. (a)
19. Assertion (A): In the late embryonic stage of chick, the embryo still derives its nutrition from the yolk although the neck of the yolk sac is constricted.
Reason (R): The omphalomesenteric vessels supply the nutrition to the developing embryo.
Ans. (a)
20. Assertion (A): Guinea worm can thrive only in the lymphatic tissues.
Reason (R): Lymph is a fluid.
Ans. (b)
ZOOLOGYObjective questions multiple choice type
Assertion and Reason type Objective Questions
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): A polyspermy is being slowly blocked, the cortical grannules explode and release their contents into the perivitelline space.
Reason (R): Quick blocking of polyspermy sets in depolarization of the egg plasma lemma and mobilization as Ca +2 from stores within the egg.
Ans. (b)
2. Assertion (A): Knowledge derived from geology has led to the belief that on our planet there have been no deposits without traces of life.
Reason (R): The existence of life wherever circumstances warrant its existence, is one of the characteristic features of the universe.
Ans. (b)
3. Assertion (A): In ascidians, the tadpole larva undergoes retrogressive metamorphosis to attain the adult stage.
Reason (R): The limbs of the larva gradually disappear to reach the sessile life.
Ans. (a)
4. Assertion (A): Gene is a biological entity-a heritable function detected by observing the effect of a mutation. i gene consists of all the DNA sequences necessary t produces a single peptide or RNA product.
Reason (R): The Gene is a single contiguous protein encoding stretch of DNA.
Ans.(a)
5. Assertion (A): After the addition of the last amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain, the protein syntheses terminate.
Reason (R): The terminator codon interacts with release factor(s) and the resultant RF terminator codon ribosome complex effectively blocks further chain elongation.
Ans.(b)
6. Assertion (A): The presence of contractile vacuole is very essential in Amoeba.
Reason (R): If the excess water is not removed, Amoeba would soon swell and burst.
Ans. (a)
7. Assertion (A): Cicada belongs to class Insecta.
Reason (R): Male sings loudly by two sets of vibrating plates on fore part of abdomen.
Ans. (b)
8. Assertion (A): Neopilina, discovered in 1952 is a primitive living mollusc.
Reason (R): Absence of shell is considered a primitive feature for a living molluscan form.
Ans. (c)
9. Assertion (A): Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between reptiles and modern birds.
Reason (R): It possesses pneumatized bones an avian character and opposable first toe of foot a reptilian character.
Ans. (c)
10. Assertion (A): The conjugation in Paramecium corresponds to cross-fertilization of higher animals.
Reason (R): The conjugation in process of reconstruction of nuclei involving the fusion of gametic nuclei.
Ans. (d)
11. Assertion (A): Cuticle of Ascaris is well-developed in structure and chemical organization.
Reason (R): The parasite has to protect itself from the injurious effects of the host’s chyme.
Ans. (c)
12. Assertion (A): Hirudo medicinalis sucks blood from different vertebrates.
Reason (R): Its buccal cavity includes three jaws.
Ans. (a)
13. Assertion (A): In Herdmania, the test is provided with vascular ampullae.
Reason. (R): These structures serve as means of excretion of waste products of the body.
Ans. (c)
14. Assertion (A): Anguilla anguilla can travel on damp grass.
Reason (R): Anguilla anguilla has vascular areas in the skin and its opercular openings are very small so that it retains water in the branchial chamber during its journey on land.
Ans. (a)
15. Assertion (A): In Amniota there is twelve pairs of cranial nerves instead often.
Reason (R): Amniotes have two additional segments in the head region.
Ans. (a)
16. Assertion (A): The eyes of nocturnal, cave and deep water animals have only rods in their retina.
Reason (R): Rods detect differences in the intensity of light but do not discriminate finer details of objects.
Ans. (b)
17. Assertion (A): In Branchiostoma, the origin of coelom is enterocoelic.
Reason (R): In Branchiostoma, coelom is formed from the splitting of mesodermal sheet.
Ans. (c)
18. Assertion (A): Cell movement during gastrulation is called morphogenetic movement.
Reason (R): Change of shape of embryo occurs by morphogenetic movement.
Ans. (a)
19. Assertion (A): In the late embryonic stage of chick, the embryo still derives its nutrition from the yolk although the neck of the yolk sac is constricted.
Reason (R): The omphalomesenteric vessels supply the nutrition to the developing embryo.
Ans. (a)
20. Assertion (A): Guinea worm can thrive only in the lymphatic tissues.
Reason (R): Lymph is a fluid.
Ans. (b)
zoology MCQ for PMT
zoology MCQ for PMT
Objective Zoology MCQs for Various PMT
Zoology MCQ
1. Keratinization of the skin is prevented by:
(a) Vitamin-A
(b) Vitamin-B
(c) Vitamin-C
(d) Vitamin-D
Ans. (a)
2. Which vertebrate organ receives only oxygenated blood?
(a) Liver
(b) Lung
(c) Spleen
(d) Gill
Ans. (c)
3. Genetic information is carried by long chain macro-molecules made up of:
(a) amino acids
(b) nucleotides
(d) chromosomes
(d) enzymes
Ans.(b)
4. “Portuguese man of war” is:
(a) Obelia
(b) Pennatula
(c) Coral
(d) Physalia
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the followings not a pentose ‘sugar?
(a) arabinose
(c) xylulose
(b) xylose
(d) mannose
Ans. (d)
6. Earthworms have no special sense organs. Still they are sensitive to:
(a) touch and sound
(b) light and sound,
(c) touch, taste and sound
(d) touch, taste and light
Ans. (d)
7. Which fish has an electric organ?
(a) Torpedo
(b) Rhinoceros
(c) Scoliodon
(d) Cat fish
Ans. (a)
8. The pH of stomach ranges between:
(a) 7.1 to 8.2
(b) 7.6 to 8.6
(c) 1.5 to 2.0
(d) 6.8 to 7.2
Ans. (c)
9. Life span of WBCs of human is approximately:
(a) 24 hrs
(b) less than 10 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 100 hrs
Ans. (b)
10 Which one of the following is a refuge for Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica) ?
(a) Kanha national park
(b) Corbett national park
(c) Kaziranga national park
(d) Gir forest
Ans. (d)
11. Photo reactivation mechanism is mediated by an enzyme known as:
(a) phytolyase
(b) hexokinase
(c) aldolase
(d) protease
Ans. (a)
12. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in number and:
(a) are always circular
(b) are always linear
(c) can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell
(d) can be circular as well as linear within the same cell
Ans. (a)
13. Photo reactivation means:
(a) respiration in light
(b) addition of thymine diamers
(c) activation of plants in light
(d) removal of thymine diamers
Ans. (d)
14. Transfer of genes from one gene pool to another is called:
(a) speciation
(b) genetic drift
(c) gene flow
(d) mutation
Ans. (c)
15. Amoeba proteus contains a nucleus which is:
(a) flattened, cup shaped and slightly biconcave an4 does not like human erythrocyte
(b) flattened, discoidal and slightly biconcave disk like a human erythrocyte
(c) rounded cup shaped and slightly biconvex like human erythrocyte
(d) rounded, discoidal and slightly biconvex like human erythrocyte
Ans. (b)
16. Which statement is correct for muscle- contraction?
(a) Length of H-zone decreases
(b) Length of A-band decreases
(c) Length of I-band remain constant
(d) Length of two Z line increases
Ans. (a)
17. Guanine is also known as:
(a) 6 amino purine
(b) 2 amino purine
(c) 2 amino 4 oxypurine
(d) 2 amino 6 oxypurine
Ans. (d)
18. Pseudomonas is a:
(a) Gram positive, heterotrophic, aerobic bacterium
(b) Gram negative, heterotrophic, aerobic bacterium
(C) Gram negative, heterotrophic, anaerobic bacterium
(d) Gram positive, heterotrophic, anaerobic bacterium
Ans. (b)
19. During binary fission in Paramecium:
(a) micronucleus divides amitotically and macronucleus mitotically
(b) micronucleus divides mitotically and macronucleus amitotically
(c) both divide mitotically
(d) both divide amitotically
Ans. (b)
20. During cell division chromosomes generally remain:
(a) inactive
(b) active
(c) active after metaphase
(d) active after telophase
Ans. (a)
21. Epinephrine is:
(a) Secreted from adrenal medulla and decreases heart beats
(b) Secreted from adrenal medulla and increases heart beats
(c) Secreted from pancreas and regulates glucose level
(d) Secreted from pancreas and decreases glucose level
Ans. (b)
22. The capsule enclosing testes of mammal is, called as
(a) Tunica albuginea
(b) Tunica membrana
(c) Tunica vaginalis
(d) Tunica vasculosa
Ans. (a)
23. The process of gastrulation in frog is more complicated than in Amphioxus because of the presence, in frog, of:
(a) Passive micromere
(b) Passive macromere
(c) Passive mesomere
(d) Passive epimere
Ans. (b)
24. The outermost sheath of connective tissue that surrounds a skeletal muscle is .
(a) Epimer
(b) Epimysium
(c) Epimerite
(d) Epimere
Ans. (d)
25. Mammalian kidney is:
(a) Pronephros
(b) Epinephros
(c) Mesonephros
(d) Metanephros
Ans. (d)
26. Diabetes is established by:
(1) Occurrence of sugar in urine blood
(2) Sugar level
(3) Insulin level in blood
(4) Blood protein level
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Mitochondria contain DNA ,
(2) 70S ribosomes Occur in prokaryote
(3) Ribosomes are made up of phospholipids and oligosaccharide
(4) Ribosomes are not found in Protista and Monera
Ans. (b)
28. Cells regulate their activity through:
(1) Flow of energy
(2) Flow of material
(3) Flow of information
(4) Flow of smoke
Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following match is correct?
(1) Flame cells — Flatworm
(2) Marsupium — Kangaroo
(3) Water vascular system — Sponge.
(4) Pheretima — Parapodia
Ans. (b)
30. Annelida is advanced over nematoda in having:
(1) Closed circulation
(2) Metameric segmentation
(3) True coelom
(4) Flame cells
Ans. (a)
31. Microtubules take part in:
(1) Formation of spindle fibres
(2) Movement of cilia and flagella
(3) Cyclosis
(4) Respiration
Ans. (b)
32. Chromatin consists of:
(1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) Matrix
(4) Histones
Ans. (c)
33 Lysosomes function is:
(1) Extra cellular digestion
(2) Fat break down
(3) Intra-cellular digestion
(4) Food formation
Ans. (d)
34. Hemoglobin is:
(1) Oligomeric protein
(2) Chromoprotein
(3) Monomeric protein
(4) Keratin
Ans. (b)
35. Alleles represent:
(1) Different forms of a gene
(2) Same loci on homologous chromosomes
(3) Two or more forms
(4) Only one form
Ans. (a)
36. Which is applicable to mutations?
(1) They are inheritable genetic changes
(2) Many of them remain undetected
(3) They can be induced artificially
(4) They are possible only in diploid cells
Ans. (d)
37. Cytoplasmic inheritance is due to:
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Cilia
(3) Cytoplasmic particles
(4) Cell wall
Ans. (a)
38. Genetic code consists of:
(1) r-RNA
(2) Adenine and guanine
(3) Lysosome
(4) Cytosine and uracil
Ans. (c)
39. Which one is true?
(1) A=T, G=C
(2) A = G, T = C
(3) C=G, T=A
(4) T = U, G A
Ans. (b)
40. Hyper variable repeat sequences or Variable number of Tandem repeats (VNTRs) are:
(1) Introns of split genes
(2) Minisatellites
(3) Barr body
(4) Flanked by conserved restriction sites
Ans. (a)
41. Chromatophores of frog consist of:
(1) Lipophores
(2) Guanophroes
(3) Melanophores
(4) Neumatophores
Ans. (a)
42. Myofibrils show dark and light bands in:
(1) Cardiac muscles
(2) Striped muscles
(3) Unstriped muscles
(4) Neuron
Ans. (b)
43. Synovial joint is:
(1) Ball and socket joint
(2) Pivot joint
(3) Hinge joint
(4) Cartilagenous joints
Ans. (a)
44. Body co-ordination is maintained by:
(1) Nervous system
(2) Circulatory system
(3) Endocrine system
(4) Excretory system
Ans. (d)
45. Broca area controls:
(1) Breathing
(2) Movement of vocal cords
(3) Movement of teeth
(4) Movement of tongue
Ans. (c)
46. An important function of progesterone is:
(1) Prepare uterus for pregnancy
(2) Implantation of embryo
(3) Maintenance of pregnancy
(4) Stimulate ADH
Ans. (a)
47. Adrenalin hormone increases:
(1) Blood pressure
(2) Heart beat
(3) Blood glucose level
(4) Arteriosclerosis
Ans. (b)
48. Mammalian palate is:
(1) Primary structure
(2) Parallel to original roof of mouth cavity
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Secondary structure
Ans. (c)
49. Menstrual cycle is controlled by:
(1) Estrogen and progesterone of ovary
(2) FSH of pituitary
(3) FSH and ER of pituitary
(4) Oxytocin hormone
Ans. (d)
50. B-lymphocytes are:
(1) Formed in bone marrow
(2) Preprocessed in bone marrow
(3) Preprocessed in liver
(4) Formed in thymus
Ans. (d)
Objective Zoology MCQs for Various PMT
Zoology MCQ
1. Keratinization of the skin is prevented by:
(a) Vitamin-A
(b) Vitamin-B
(c) Vitamin-C
(d) Vitamin-D
Ans. (a)
2. Which vertebrate organ receives only oxygenated blood?
(a) Liver
(b) Lung
(c) Spleen
(d) Gill
Ans. (c)
3. Genetic information is carried by long chain macro-molecules made up of:
(a) amino acids
(b) nucleotides
(d) chromosomes
(d) enzymes
Ans.(b)
4. “Portuguese man of war” is:
(a) Obelia
(b) Pennatula
(c) Coral
(d) Physalia
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the followings not a pentose ‘sugar?
(a) arabinose
(c) xylulose
(b) xylose
(d) mannose
Ans. (d)
6. Earthworms have no special sense organs. Still they are sensitive to:
(a) touch and sound
(b) light and sound,
(c) touch, taste and sound
(d) touch, taste and light
Ans. (d)
7. Which fish has an electric organ?
(a) Torpedo
(b) Rhinoceros
(c) Scoliodon
(d) Cat fish
Ans. (a)
8. The pH of stomach ranges between:
(a) 7.1 to 8.2
(b) 7.6 to 8.6
(c) 1.5 to 2.0
(d) 6.8 to 7.2
Ans. (c)
9. Life span of WBCs of human is approximately:
(a) 24 hrs
(b) less than 10 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 100 hrs
Ans. (b)
10 Which one of the following is a refuge for Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica) ?
(a) Kanha national park
(b) Corbett national park
(c) Kaziranga national park
(d) Gir forest
Ans. (d)
11. Photo reactivation mechanism is mediated by an enzyme known as:
(a) phytolyase
(b) hexokinase
(c) aldolase
(d) protease
Ans. (a)
12. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in number and:
(a) are always circular
(b) are always linear
(c) can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell
(d) can be circular as well as linear within the same cell
Ans. (a)
13. Photo reactivation means:
(a) respiration in light
(b) addition of thymine diamers
(c) activation of plants in light
(d) removal of thymine diamers
Ans. (d)
14. Transfer of genes from one gene pool to another is called:
(a) speciation
(b) genetic drift
(c) gene flow
(d) mutation
Ans. (c)
15. Amoeba proteus contains a nucleus which is:
(a) flattened, cup shaped and slightly biconcave an4 does not like human erythrocyte
(b) flattened, discoidal and slightly biconcave disk like a human erythrocyte
(c) rounded cup shaped and slightly biconvex like human erythrocyte
(d) rounded, discoidal and slightly biconvex like human erythrocyte
Ans. (b)
16. Which statement is correct for muscle- contraction?
(a) Length of H-zone decreases
(b) Length of A-band decreases
(c) Length of I-band remain constant
(d) Length of two Z line increases
Ans. (a)
17. Guanine is also known as:
(a) 6 amino purine
(b) 2 amino purine
(c) 2 amino 4 oxypurine
(d) 2 amino 6 oxypurine
Ans. (d)
18. Pseudomonas is a:
(a) Gram positive, heterotrophic, aerobic bacterium
(b) Gram negative, heterotrophic, aerobic bacterium
(C) Gram negative, heterotrophic, anaerobic bacterium
(d) Gram positive, heterotrophic, anaerobic bacterium
Ans. (b)
19. During binary fission in Paramecium:
(a) micronucleus divides amitotically and macronucleus mitotically
(b) micronucleus divides mitotically and macronucleus amitotically
(c) both divide mitotically
(d) both divide amitotically
Ans. (b)
20. During cell division chromosomes generally remain:
(a) inactive
(b) active
(c) active after metaphase
(d) active after telophase
Ans. (a)
21. Epinephrine is:
(a) Secreted from adrenal medulla and decreases heart beats
(b) Secreted from adrenal medulla and increases heart beats
(c) Secreted from pancreas and regulates glucose level
(d) Secreted from pancreas and decreases glucose level
Ans. (b)
22. The capsule enclosing testes of mammal is, called as
(a) Tunica albuginea
(b) Tunica membrana
(c) Tunica vaginalis
(d) Tunica vasculosa
Ans. (a)
23. The process of gastrulation in frog is more complicated than in Amphioxus because of the presence, in frog, of:
(a) Passive micromere
(b) Passive macromere
(c) Passive mesomere
(d) Passive epimere
Ans. (b)
24. The outermost sheath of connective tissue that surrounds a skeletal muscle is .
(a) Epimer
(b) Epimysium
(c) Epimerite
(d) Epimere
Ans. (d)
25. Mammalian kidney is:
(a) Pronephros
(b) Epinephros
(c) Mesonephros
(d) Metanephros
Ans. (d)
26. Diabetes is established by:
(1) Occurrence of sugar in urine blood
(2) Sugar level
(3) Insulin level in blood
(4) Blood protein level
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Mitochondria contain DNA ,
(2) 70S ribosomes Occur in prokaryote
(3) Ribosomes are made up of phospholipids and oligosaccharide
(4) Ribosomes are not found in Protista and Monera
Ans. (b)
28. Cells regulate their activity through:
(1) Flow of energy
(2) Flow of material
(3) Flow of information
(4) Flow of smoke
Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following match is correct?
(1) Flame cells — Flatworm
(2) Marsupium — Kangaroo
(3) Water vascular system — Sponge.
(4) Pheretima — Parapodia
Ans. (b)
30. Annelida is advanced over nematoda in having:
(1) Closed circulation
(2) Metameric segmentation
(3) True coelom
(4) Flame cells
Ans. (a)
31. Microtubules take part in:
(1) Formation of spindle fibres
(2) Movement of cilia and flagella
(3) Cyclosis
(4) Respiration
Ans. (b)
32. Chromatin consists of:
(1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) Matrix
(4) Histones
Ans. (c)
33 Lysosomes function is:
(1) Extra cellular digestion
(2) Fat break down
(3) Intra-cellular digestion
(4) Food formation
Ans. (d)
34. Hemoglobin is:
(1) Oligomeric protein
(2) Chromoprotein
(3) Monomeric protein
(4) Keratin
Ans. (b)
35. Alleles represent:
(1) Different forms of a gene
(2) Same loci on homologous chromosomes
(3) Two or more forms
(4) Only one form
Ans. (a)
36. Which is applicable to mutations?
(1) They are inheritable genetic changes
(2) Many of them remain undetected
(3) They can be induced artificially
(4) They are possible only in diploid cells
Ans. (d)
37. Cytoplasmic inheritance is due to:
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Cilia
(3) Cytoplasmic particles
(4) Cell wall
Ans. (a)
38. Genetic code consists of:
(1) r-RNA
(2) Adenine and guanine
(3) Lysosome
(4) Cytosine and uracil
Ans. (c)
39. Which one is true?
(1) A=T, G=C
(2) A = G, T = C
(3) C=G, T=A
(4) T = U, G A
Ans. (b)
40. Hyper variable repeat sequences or Variable number of Tandem repeats (VNTRs) are:
(1) Introns of split genes
(2) Minisatellites
(3) Barr body
(4) Flanked by conserved restriction sites
Ans. (a)
41. Chromatophores of frog consist of:
(1) Lipophores
(2) Guanophroes
(3) Melanophores
(4) Neumatophores
Ans. (a)
42. Myofibrils show dark and light bands in:
(1) Cardiac muscles
(2) Striped muscles
(3) Unstriped muscles
(4) Neuron
Ans. (b)
43. Synovial joint is:
(1) Ball and socket joint
(2) Pivot joint
(3) Hinge joint
(4) Cartilagenous joints
Ans. (a)
44. Body co-ordination is maintained by:
(1) Nervous system
(2) Circulatory system
(3) Endocrine system
(4) Excretory system
Ans. (d)
45. Broca area controls:
(1) Breathing
(2) Movement of vocal cords
(3) Movement of teeth
(4) Movement of tongue
Ans. (c)
46. An important function of progesterone is:
(1) Prepare uterus for pregnancy
(2) Implantation of embryo
(3) Maintenance of pregnancy
(4) Stimulate ADH
Ans. (a)
47. Adrenalin hormone increases:
(1) Blood pressure
(2) Heart beat
(3) Blood glucose level
(4) Arteriosclerosis
Ans. (b)
48. Mammalian palate is:
(1) Primary structure
(2) Parallel to original roof of mouth cavity
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Secondary structure
Ans. (c)
49. Menstrual cycle is controlled by:
(1) Estrogen and progesterone of ovary
(2) FSH of pituitary
(3) FSH and ER of pituitary
(4) Oxytocin hormone
Ans. (d)
50. B-lymphocytes are:
(1) Formed in bone marrow
(2) Preprocessed in bone marrow
(3) Preprocessed in liver
(4) Formed in thymus
Ans. (d)
Monday, May 9, 2011
UPSC previous questions and answers zoology
UPSC previous questions and answers zoology
UPSC – IAS Zoology Solved Question Questions & Answers
UPSC Civil Services Zoology Preliminary Exam
1. The interspecific interaction between the termites and the protozoans (Trichonymphy sp.), present in the guts of termites is called
(a) Amensalism
(b) Commensalisms
(c) Parasitism
(d) Mutualism
Ans. (d)
2. Similarity in the appearance of two or more unpalatable species resulting over evolutionary time is called
(a) Mutual adaptation
(b) Batesian mimicry
(c) Mullerian mimicry
(d) Convergent mimicry
Ans. (c)
3. The pyramids of biomass are always inverted in
(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Forest ecosystem
(c) Pond ecosystem
(d) Desert ecosystem
Ans. (c)
4. Consider the following
1. Bandipur wildlife sanctuary
2. Manas wildlife sanctuary
3. Simlipal wildlife sanctuary
Which of the above are tiger reserves under the project tiger?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
5. Thamin deer (Cervus eldi) is an inhabitant of
(a) Kanha National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Bandipur Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans. (b)
6. Which one of the following refers to the largest tiger reserve?
(a) Corbett
(b) Sariska
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar-Srisailam
(d) Kanha
Ans. (c)
7. Consider the following statements
1. In India, the Sangai is confined to Nagaland only.
2. Four-homed antelope (Tetracerus quadriocornis) exclusively lives in Indian sub-continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
8. Consider the following statements
1. Pheromones are used to repel predators.
2. Mucus secreted by the snails’ acts as pheromone.
3. Certain steroid metabolites act as pheromones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l and 2only
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Temperature affects size of animals 1. Gloger’s rule
B. Temperature affects coloration of animals 2. Jordan’s rule
C. Temperature affects size of extremities of certain animals 3. Bergman’s rule
D. Temperature affects number of vertebrae in certain fish 4. Allen’s rule
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)
10. Species which occupy similar niches in different geographical regions are called which one of the following?
(a) Ecotypes
(b) Ecological guilds
(c) Ecological equivalents
(d) Ecological determinants
Ans. (c)
11. Consider the following statements
1. In grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is upright in shape.
2. In pond ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is inverted in shape.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
Ans. (c)
12. Who among the following is associated with the description of Y-shaped or 2-channel energy flow model applicable to both terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems?
(a) Hardin
(b) Liebig
(c) Odum
(d) Shelford
Ans. (c)
13. Which of th following is one of the deep sea adaptations in animals?
(a) Laterally compressed body
(b) Bio-luminescence
(c) Streamlined body
(d) Light and spongy body
Ans. (b)
14. The Anopheles mosquito, which is a temporary blood sucking parasite of man, is itself parasitized by Plasmodium. This is an example of which one of the following?
(a) Ectoparasitism
(b) Parasitoid
(c) Obligatory parasitism
(d) Hyperparasitim
Ans. (d)
15. A sucker fish attached to the belly of spark gets a free ride and feeds on the left-overs from shark. What is this type of inter-specific animal relationship called?
(a) Parasitism
(b) Commensalisms
(c) Protocooperation
(d) Mutualism
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following aquatic adaptations in animals
1. Loss of pinna
2. Loss of hind limb
3. Presence of thick blubber
4. Presence of swim bladder
Which of the above are observed in whales?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
17. According to Version 3.1: IUCN (2001) Red List, a ‘Threatened’ category includes which species?
(a) Extinct in wild (EW), Critically Endangered (CR) and Endangered (EN)
(b) CR, EN and Vulnerable (VU)
(c) Data Deficient (DD), Least Concern (LC) and EN
(d) Not Evaluated (NE), DD and VU
Ans. (b)
18. What is the scientific name of endangered Brow-antlered deer?
(a) Cervus unicolor
(b) Cervus eldi eldi
(c) Cervus elephus
(d) Cervus duvaucelii
Ans. (b)
19. Circadian rhythm is a biological rhythm involving which one of the following?
(a) Exactly 24 hours
(b) About 24 hours
(c) 15.days corresponding full moon and new moon
(d) 30 days corresponding full moon
Ans. (b)
20. Consider the following statements:
Eutrophication of lakes results in
1. Increase in species richness.
2. Increase in detritus content.
3. Increase in nitrate constant.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3only
Ans. (a)
21. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) India is the only country where Cervus duvaucelii duvaucelii
(b) Cervus unicolor niger is the largest deer found in India.
(c) Only the females of Moschus Moschus moschiferus carry the mush
(d) Antelope cervicapra can run with a speed of mare than 60 km per hour
Ans. (c)
22. Consider the following protected areas:
1. Indravati
2. Melghat
3. Periyar
4. Valmiki
Which of the above are the Project Tiger Reserves in India?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
23. Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation?
(a) Sanctuary
(b) National Park
(c) Biosphere Reserve
(d) Zoological Park
Ans. (d)
24. In India, Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in which year?
(a) 1966
(b) 1976
(c) 1986
(d) 1996
Ans. (c)
25. What is the rate of storage of organic matter in plant tissue in excess of respiratory utilization by the plants during the period of measurement called?
(a) Secondary productivity
(b) Net community productivity
(c) Gross primary productivity
(d) Net primary productivity
Ans. (d)
26. With reference to ecological niche consider the following statements:
1. Often, within the same species, different stages in the organism’s life history occupy different niches.
2. In some species, niche segregation may occur between sexes.
3. When niches of two species overlap, it always results in the elimination of one species.
Which of the statements given above is/art correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
27. Among the following which one is the most productive ecosystem in terms of mean net primary productivity (g/m2 /yr)?
(a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Tropical seasonal forest
(c) Swamp and marsh
(d) Coral reef
Ans. (d)
28. Which one of the following theories explains the formation of pseudopodia in Amoeba?
(a) Theory of Ulehia and Krijsman
(b) Surface tensions theory and change of viscosity theory
(c) Screw theory of Butschli
(d) Gliding movement theory
Ans. (b)
29. The sexual cycle of Plasmodium is completed in
(a) liver tissue
(b) red blood corpuscles
(c) the gut of the mosquito
(d) the salivary glands of the mosquito
Ans. (c)
30. The correct pathway of water current in Sycon is
(a) ostia-osculum-spongocoel-radial canal-outside
(b) osculum-incurrent canal-prosopyles-ostia-outside
(c) apopyles-radial canal-prosopyles-osculum-outside
(d) ostia-prosopyles-radial canal-spongocoel-osculumoutside
Ans. (d)
31. The coelenteron of Hydra is
(a) coelomic cavity
(b) pseudocoelomic cavity
(c) perivisceral cavity
(d) gastrovascular cavity
Ans. (d)
32. Match list-I with list-II and select in correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Taenia 1. Hexacanth
B. Obelia 2. Glochidium
C. Unio 3. Planula
D. Balanoglossus 4. Tornaria
5. Miracidium
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 5
(b) 3 2 1 5
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)
33. Roundworms differ from the flatworms in that the roundworms have a
(a) longitudinal nerve cord
(b) segmented body
(c) pseudocoel
(d) larval stage in the life history
Ans. (c)
34. The botryoidal tissue of leech is a/an
(a) connective tissue
(b) mesodermal tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) mesenchymatic tissue
Ans. (a)
35. The typhlosole in the earthworm is functionally associated with
(a) secretion of digestive enzymes
(b) killing bacteria in intestine
(c) mastication of food
(d) increasing the absorptive surface arc
Ans. (d)
36. Sperm thecae in earthworm are used for
(a) protection of sperms
(b) generation of sperms
(c) stimulation of ovum
(d) storing of spermatozoa
Ans. (d)
37. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Organs of respiration) List-II (Animals)
A. Book-lungs 1. Mosquito larvae
B. Body wall 2. Pila
C. Respiratory siphon 3. Scorpion
D. Pulmonary sac 4. Earthworm
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (d)
38. Which one of the following organs is associated with the digestive system of Pila?
(a) Hastate plate
(b) Radula
(c) Gizzard
(d) Velum
Ans. (b)
39. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Spicules - Amoeba
(b) Suckers - Ascaris
(c) Malpighian tubules - Earthworm
(d) Velum - Amphioxus
Ans. (d)
40. In bivalves, the structure which secretes the pearl is
(a) periostracum layer
(b) prismatic layer
(c) nacreous layer
(d) nacreous gland
Ans. (c)
41. Consider the following statements about Protozoa. Its classification is based on
(i) Locomotory organelle
(ii) Mode of feeding
(iii) Size and shape
(iv) Mode of reproduction
Of these statements:
(a) i alone is correct
(b) i and iii are correct
(c) ii alone is correct
(d) ii and iii are correct
Ans. (a)
42. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Animals) List-II (Organs of locomotion)
A. Paramecium 1. Parapodia
B. Mussels 2. Flagellum
C. Trypanosoma 3. Foot
D. Tube worms 4. Tube feet
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. All Options Wrong
43. Glass sponges belong to the class
(a) Demospongiae
(b) Tetractinellidea
(c) Hexactinellida
(d) Calcarea
Ans. (c)
44. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Larval forms) List-II (Corresponding adults)
A. Planula 1. Coelenterata
B. Mullet’s larva 2. Mollusca
C. Tornaria 3. Holothuroidea
D. Auricularia 4. Hemichordata
5. Turbellaria
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 5 4 3
(b) 2 5 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 5
(d) 5 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
45. Endoparasitic worms with several suckers and hooks on opisthaptor are included in the class
(a) Cestoda
(b) Digenea
(c) Monogenea
(d) Turbellaria
Ans. (a)
46. The most characteristic feature of Annelida is
(a) the presence of pseudocoel
(b) the spiral determinate cleavage
(c) metameric segmentation
(d) radial symmetry
Ans. (c)
47. On the basis of increasing number of legs possessed by animals, which one of the following indicates the correct sequence?
(a) Grasshopper, palamnaeus, crayfish, millipede
(b) Palainnaeus, grasshopper, crayfish, millipede
(c) Crayfish, plamnaeus, grasshopper, millipede
(d) Millipede, crayfish, grasshopper, palamnaeus
Ans. (a)
48. Bilateral symmetry in a certain group of phylum-Mollusca is lost due to
(a) rotation
(b) torsion
(c) reversion and rotation
(d) expansion and torsion
Ans. (b)
49. Which one of the following echinoderms possesses a respiratory tree?
(a) Sea cucumber
(b) Star fish
(c) Feather star
(d) Sea urchin
Ann. (a)
50. The animal group having radically symmtrica1 adult but bilaterally symmetrical larva is
(a) Porifera
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Annelida
(d) Echinodermata
Ans. (d)
UPSC – IAS Zoology Solved Question Questions & Answers
UPSC Civil Services Zoology Preliminary Exam
1. The interspecific interaction between the termites and the protozoans (Trichonymphy sp.), present in the guts of termites is called
(a) Amensalism
(b) Commensalisms
(c) Parasitism
(d) Mutualism
Ans. (d)
2. Similarity in the appearance of two or more unpalatable species resulting over evolutionary time is called
(a) Mutual adaptation
(b) Batesian mimicry
(c) Mullerian mimicry
(d) Convergent mimicry
Ans. (c)
3. The pyramids of biomass are always inverted in
(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Forest ecosystem
(c) Pond ecosystem
(d) Desert ecosystem
Ans. (c)
4. Consider the following
1. Bandipur wildlife sanctuary
2. Manas wildlife sanctuary
3. Simlipal wildlife sanctuary
Which of the above are tiger reserves under the project tiger?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
5. Thamin deer (Cervus eldi) is an inhabitant of
(a) Kanha National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Bandipur Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans. (b)
6. Which one of the following refers to the largest tiger reserve?
(a) Corbett
(b) Sariska
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar-Srisailam
(d) Kanha
Ans. (c)
7. Consider the following statements
1. In India, the Sangai is confined to Nagaland only.
2. Four-homed antelope (Tetracerus quadriocornis) exclusively lives in Indian sub-continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
8. Consider the following statements
1. Pheromones are used to repel predators.
2. Mucus secreted by the snails’ acts as pheromone.
3. Certain steroid metabolites act as pheromones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l and 2only
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Temperature affects size of animals 1. Gloger’s rule
B. Temperature affects coloration of animals 2. Jordan’s rule
C. Temperature affects size of extremities of certain animals 3. Bergman’s rule
D. Temperature affects number of vertebrae in certain fish 4. Allen’s rule
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)
10. Species which occupy similar niches in different geographical regions are called which one of the following?
(a) Ecotypes
(b) Ecological guilds
(c) Ecological equivalents
(d) Ecological determinants
Ans. (c)
11. Consider the following statements
1. In grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is upright in shape.
2. In pond ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is inverted in shape.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
Ans. (c)
12. Who among the following is associated with the description of Y-shaped or 2-channel energy flow model applicable to both terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems?
(a) Hardin
(b) Liebig
(c) Odum
(d) Shelford
Ans. (c)
13. Which of th following is one of the deep sea adaptations in animals?
(a) Laterally compressed body
(b) Bio-luminescence
(c) Streamlined body
(d) Light and spongy body
Ans. (b)
14. The Anopheles mosquito, which is a temporary blood sucking parasite of man, is itself parasitized by Plasmodium. This is an example of which one of the following?
(a) Ectoparasitism
(b) Parasitoid
(c) Obligatory parasitism
(d) Hyperparasitim
Ans. (d)
15. A sucker fish attached to the belly of spark gets a free ride and feeds on the left-overs from shark. What is this type of inter-specific animal relationship called?
(a) Parasitism
(b) Commensalisms
(c) Protocooperation
(d) Mutualism
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following aquatic adaptations in animals
1. Loss of pinna
2. Loss of hind limb
3. Presence of thick blubber
4. Presence of swim bladder
Which of the above are observed in whales?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
17. According to Version 3.1: IUCN (2001) Red List, a ‘Threatened’ category includes which species?
(a) Extinct in wild (EW), Critically Endangered (CR) and Endangered (EN)
(b) CR, EN and Vulnerable (VU)
(c) Data Deficient (DD), Least Concern (LC) and EN
(d) Not Evaluated (NE), DD and VU
Ans. (b)
18. What is the scientific name of endangered Brow-antlered deer?
(a) Cervus unicolor
(b) Cervus eldi eldi
(c) Cervus elephus
(d) Cervus duvaucelii
Ans. (b)
19. Circadian rhythm is a biological rhythm involving which one of the following?
(a) Exactly 24 hours
(b) About 24 hours
(c) 15.days corresponding full moon and new moon
(d) 30 days corresponding full moon
Ans. (b)
20. Consider the following statements:
Eutrophication of lakes results in
1. Increase in species richness.
2. Increase in detritus content.
3. Increase in nitrate constant.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3only
Ans. (a)
21. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) India is the only country where Cervus duvaucelii duvaucelii
(b) Cervus unicolor niger is the largest deer found in India.
(c) Only the females of Moschus Moschus moschiferus carry the mush
(d) Antelope cervicapra can run with a speed of mare than 60 km per hour
Ans. (c)
22. Consider the following protected areas:
1. Indravati
2. Melghat
3. Periyar
4. Valmiki
Which of the above are the Project Tiger Reserves in India?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
23. Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation?
(a) Sanctuary
(b) National Park
(c) Biosphere Reserve
(d) Zoological Park
Ans. (d)
24. In India, Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in which year?
(a) 1966
(b) 1976
(c) 1986
(d) 1996
Ans. (c)
25. What is the rate of storage of organic matter in plant tissue in excess of respiratory utilization by the plants during the period of measurement called?
(a) Secondary productivity
(b) Net community productivity
(c) Gross primary productivity
(d) Net primary productivity
Ans. (d)
26. With reference to ecological niche consider the following statements:
1. Often, within the same species, different stages in the organism’s life history occupy different niches.
2. In some species, niche segregation may occur between sexes.
3. When niches of two species overlap, it always results in the elimination of one species.
Which of the statements given above is/art correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
27. Among the following which one is the most productive ecosystem in terms of mean net primary productivity (g/m2 /yr)?
(a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Tropical seasonal forest
(c) Swamp and marsh
(d) Coral reef
Ans. (d)
28. Which one of the following theories explains the formation of pseudopodia in Amoeba?
(a) Theory of Ulehia and Krijsman
(b) Surface tensions theory and change of viscosity theory
(c) Screw theory of Butschli
(d) Gliding movement theory
Ans. (b)
29. The sexual cycle of Plasmodium is completed in
(a) liver tissue
(b) red blood corpuscles
(c) the gut of the mosquito
(d) the salivary glands of the mosquito
Ans. (c)
30. The correct pathway of water current in Sycon is
(a) ostia-osculum-spongocoel-radial canal-outside
(b) osculum-incurrent canal-prosopyles-ostia-outside
(c) apopyles-radial canal-prosopyles-osculum-outside
(d) ostia-prosopyles-radial canal-spongocoel-osculumoutside
Ans. (d)
31. The coelenteron of Hydra is
(a) coelomic cavity
(b) pseudocoelomic cavity
(c) perivisceral cavity
(d) gastrovascular cavity
Ans. (d)
32. Match list-I with list-II and select in correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Taenia 1. Hexacanth
B. Obelia 2. Glochidium
C. Unio 3. Planula
D. Balanoglossus 4. Tornaria
5. Miracidium
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 5
(b) 3 2 1 5
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)
33. Roundworms differ from the flatworms in that the roundworms have a
(a) longitudinal nerve cord
(b) segmented body
(c) pseudocoel
(d) larval stage in the life history
Ans. (c)
34. The botryoidal tissue of leech is a/an
(a) connective tissue
(b) mesodermal tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) mesenchymatic tissue
Ans. (a)
35. The typhlosole in the earthworm is functionally associated with
(a) secretion of digestive enzymes
(b) killing bacteria in intestine
(c) mastication of food
(d) increasing the absorptive surface arc
Ans. (d)
36. Sperm thecae in earthworm are used for
(a) protection of sperms
(b) generation of sperms
(c) stimulation of ovum
(d) storing of spermatozoa
Ans. (d)
37. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Organs of respiration) List-II (Animals)
A. Book-lungs 1. Mosquito larvae
B. Body wall 2. Pila
C. Respiratory siphon 3. Scorpion
D. Pulmonary sac 4. Earthworm
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (d)
38. Which one of the following organs is associated with the digestive system of Pila?
(a) Hastate plate
(b) Radula
(c) Gizzard
(d) Velum
Ans. (b)
39. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Spicules - Amoeba
(b) Suckers - Ascaris
(c) Malpighian tubules - Earthworm
(d) Velum - Amphioxus
Ans. (d)
40. In bivalves, the structure which secretes the pearl is
(a) periostracum layer
(b) prismatic layer
(c) nacreous layer
(d) nacreous gland
Ans. (c)
41. Consider the following statements about Protozoa. Its classification is based on
(i) Locomotory organelle
(ii) Mode of feeding
(iii) Size and shape
(iv) Mode of reproduction
Of these statements:
(a) i alone is correct
(b) i and iii are correct
(c) ii alone is correct
(d) ii and iii are correct
Ans. (a)
42. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Animals) List-II (Organs of locomotion)
A. Paramecium 1. Parapodia
B. Mussels 2. Flagellum
C. Trypanosoma 3. Foot
D. Tube worms 4. Tube feet
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. All Options Wrong
43. Glass sponges belong to the class
(a) Demospongiae
(b) Tetractinellidea
(c) Hexactinellida
(d) Calcarea
Ans. (c)
44. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Larval forms) List-II (Corresponding adults)
A. Planula 1. Coelenterata
B. Mullet’s larva 2. Mollusca
C. Tornaria 3. Holothuroidea
D. Auricularia 4. Hemichordata
5. Turbellaria
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 5 4 3
(b) 2 5 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 5
(d) 5 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
45. Endoparasitic worms with several suckers and hooks on opisthaptor are included in the class
(a) Cestoda
(b) Digenea
(c) Monogenea
(d) Turbellaria
Ans. (a)
46. The most characteristic feature of Annelida is
(a) the presence of pseudocoel
(b) the spiral determinate cleavage
(c) metameric segmentation
(d) radial symmetry
Ans. (c)
47. On the basis of increasing number of legs possessed by animals, which one of the following indicates the correct sequence?
(a) Grasshopper, palamnaeus, crayfish, millipede
(b) Palainnaeus, grasshopper, crayfish, millipede
(c) Crayfish, plamnaeus, grasshopper, millipede
(d) Millipede, crayfish, grasshopper, palamnaeus
Ans. (a)
48. Bilateral symmetry in a certain group of phylum-Mollusca is lost due to
(a) rotation
(b) torsion
(c) reversion and rotation
(d) expansion and torsion
Ans. (b)
49. Which one of the following echinoderms possesses a respiratory tree?
(a) Sea cucumber
(b) Star fish
(c) Feather star
(d) Sea urchin
Ann. (a)
50. The animal group having radically symmtrica1 adult but bilaterally symmetrical larva is
(a) Porifera
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Annelida
(d) Echinodermata
Ans. (d)
Online Free Zoology Test UPSC IAS
Online Free Zoology Test UPSC IAS
Zoology - Zoology Exam Model test for IAS
Free Online Upsc Ias Practice and Preparation Test Zoology
1. Which one of the following is a feature of blood vascular system in Amphioxus?
(a) Heart is present but there are no arteries or veins
(b) Heart is absent and there is no distinction between arteries and veins
(c) Heart, arteries and veins are present
(d) Heart is absent but arteries and veins are present
Ans. (b)
2. The tunicin in ascidian is similar to
(a) Mucin
(b) Cellulose of plants
(c) Lime
(d) Dentine to teeth
Ans. (b)
3. The correct sequence of various sub-layers in the epidermis of vertebrate integument starting from outside is:
(a) Stratum germinativum, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
(b) Stratum germinativum, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum
(c) Cuticle, endodermis, dermis, hypodermis
(d) Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, spinsum, stratum germinativum
Ans. (d)
4. Which one of the following groups of mammals is considered to be toothless?
(a) Echidna, whalebone whales, anteaters and platypus
(b) Whales, marsupials, anteaters and platypus
(c) Bat, whales, marsupials and Echidna
(d) Echidna, whales, bat and platypus
Ans. (a)
5. Viviparity is a common phenomenon in mammals.
However members of one order of the class are exception.
They do not give birth to young ones. Which one of the following orders constitutes the exception?
(a) Sirenia
(b) Cetacea
(c) Monotremata
(d) Dermoptera
Ans. (c)
6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Copulatory organs Animals
(a) Claspers — Elasmobranch fish
(b) Gonopodium — Male snakes
(c) Hemipenis — Crocodiles
(d) Penis — Telecostean fish
Ans. (a)
7. Neustons are the organisms which
(a) Rest on the bottom of water
(b) Can float on water
(c) Rest or swim on the surface of water
(d) Can swim in water
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following statements is correct? In pigeons?
(a) Both inspiration and expiration are caused by the movement of pectoral muscles during flight
(b) Both inspiration and expiration are caused by the movement of pectoral muscles at the time of rest
(c) Inspiration is caused by the movement of abdominal muscles and expiration by intercostals muscles at the time of rest
(d) Inspiration is caused by the movement of intercostals muscles and expiration by abdominal muscles during flight
Ans. (a)
9. The main excretory organelle in Amphioxus is
(a) Solenocytes
(b) Brown funnels
(c) Hatchet’s nephridium
(d) Atrium
Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following
1. Parapsida
2. Anapsida
3. Diapsida
4. Rhyncocephalia
5. Chelonia
6. Cotylosauria
The correct sequence of text representing hierarchical order for extant tortoises under class Reptilia is
(a) 1, 3, 5
(b) 3, 5
(c) 2, 3, 6
(d) 2, 5
Ans. (d)
11. Consider the following dental formula
I 3/3 C 1/1 Pm 4/5 M 3/3
This dental formula belongs to order
(a) Chiroptera
(b) Dermoptera
(c) Pholidata
(d) Insectivora
Ans. (c)
12. Trochophore larve differs from Tornaria larva in having
(a) Ciliary bands
(b) Nephridia
(c) Apical ciliary plate
(d) Mouth and anus
Ans. (b)
13. The following cranial nerves originate from the brain of a fish
(i) Oculomotor
(ii) Trochlear
(iii) Trigeminal
The correct sequence of these nerves is
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) i, iii, ii
(c) ii, i, iii
(d) iii, i, ii
Ans. (a)
14. Consider the following statement associated with an ascidian
(i) The external covering surrounding the animal is a leathery translucent test or tunic composed of tunicin.
(ii) The foot is made entirely of test that has clear matrix with branchial tentacles.
(iii) The vascular ampullae form vascular areas of bright red patches on the test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
Ans. (d)
15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in Herd mania?
(a) Ventral aorta — Heart — Dorsal aorta — Branchial vessel
(b) Ventral aorta — Dorsal aorta - Heart —Branchial vessel
(c) Branchial vessel — Dorsal aorta - Ventral aorta — Heart
(d) Heart — Dorsal aorta - Ventral aorta — Branchial vessel
Ans. (a)
16. Match list-I (animals) with list-Il (class) and correct answer using the codes given below the select the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Ichthyophis 1. Ayes
B. Onchorynchus 2. Mammalia
C. Archaeopteryx 3. Teleostei
D. Ornithorhynchus 4. Amphibia
5. Elasmobranchi
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 5 1 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 5 4 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (d)
17. Reptiles, birds and mammals renb1e in the character of their
(a) Occipital condyles
(b) Amnion
(c) Homeothermy
(d) Poikilothermy
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of the following glands is homologous to the salivary gland of vertebrates?
(a) Poison gland of snake
(b) Sebaceous gland of mammals
(c) Salt gland of bird
(d) Poison gland of toad
Ans. (a)
19. Sclerotic bones are absent in
(a) Birds
(b) Fishes
(c) Lizards
(d) Humans
Ans. (b)
20. In the statement “Reptiles do not possess first, second and X aortic arches” ‘X’ stands for:
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Ans. (d)
21. Which one of the following animals does not have lymph hearts?
(a) Salamander
(b) Frog
(c) Calotes
(d) Pigeon
Ans. (d)
22. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Opisthonephric kidney — Amniote
(b) Metanephric kidney — Amphibia
(c) Aglomerular kidney — Mammal
(d) Loop of Henle — Bird
Ans. (d)
23. Apart from man, the frontal lobe is seen maximally differentiated in
(a) Elephant
(b) Monkey
(c) Chimpanzee
(d) Whale
Ans. (c)
24. The reptilian skull with a single temporal fossa between the post orbital, squamosal and jugal bones is called
(a) Synapsid skull
(b) Diapsid skull
(c) Parapsid skull
(d) Anapsid skull
Ans. (a)
25. Consider the following features
(i) Absence of jaw
(ii) Vestigial eyes
(iii) Feeding on live and dead fishes
(iv) Larval stages are marine
Which one of the following animals has all the above-mentioned features?
(a) Petromyzon
(b) Amphioxus
(c) Myxine
(d) Lampetra
Ans. (a)
26. In Rana tigrina, the centrum of ninth vertebra is different from those of its other vertebrae and it happens to be
(a) procelous
(b) opisthocelous
(c) heterocelous
(d) acoelous
Ans. (d)
27. The lower jaw in some vertebrates is not directly joined to the cranium but is only suspended by the hyomandibular bone. This type of jaw suspension is known as
(a) Amphistylic
(b) Craniostylic
(c) Autodistylic
(d) Hyostylic
Ans. (c)
28. The inability of the frog to live in brackish and saline waters is related to:
(a) non-availability of food
(b) hostile environment for breeding
(c) problems of osmo-regulation
(d) problems of respiration
Ans. (c)
29. The correct sequence of development of mammalian erythrocytes is
(a) Proerythroblast-Normoblast-Reticulocyte-Erythrocyte
(b) Normoblast-Proerythroblast-Reticulocyte-Eaythrocyte
(c) Reticulocyte-Normoblast-Proerythroblast-Erythrocyte
(d) Reticulocyte-Proerythroblast-Erythrocyte-Normoblast
Ans. (a)
30. Which one of the following communicates with each other through the foramen of Panizzae?
(a) Two systemic arches
(b) Skull and cervical vertebra
(c) Cavity of medulla and fourth ventricle
(d) Cavities of diencephalon and cerebral hemisphere
Ans. (a)
31. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Mammal — Left fourth aortic arch present
(b) Birds — Right fourth aortic arch present
(c) Reptiles — The third and fourth aortic arches alone are present
(d) Frog — The fourth aortic arches of both sides are present
Ans. (b)
32. Match list-I (animals) with list-II (special features in their circulatory system) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Animal) List-II (Special features in their circulatory system)
A. Rana 1. Loss of the right aortic arch
B. Calotes 2. Carotid labyrinth
C. Columba 3. Jugular anastamosis
D. Oryctolagus 4. Ductus caroticus
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (b)
33. The teeth of saw in the sawfish are formed of
(a) modified fibrous connective tissue of dermis
(b) modified cornified derivatives of the stratum germinativum
(c) placoid scales
(d) keratin layer
Ans. (c)
34. The cavity on the squamosal for the articulation of the lower jaw in mammals is known as:
(a) fenestra
(b) alveolus
(c) acetabulum
(d) glanoid cavity
Ans.(d)
35. In reptiles, the part of the cloaca receiving excretory and reproductive ducts is called
(a) coprodaeum
(b) urodaeum
(c) proctodaeum
(d) anus
Ans. (b)
36. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Scale of shark — Dentine
(b) Feathers of pigeon — Keratin
(c) Beak of pigeon — Rhamphotheca
(d) Hairs of rabbit — Collagen
Ans. (d)
37. Bursa fabricius is a gland which is present
(a) in the urodaeum of cloaca and helps in digestion of adult birds
(b) near the fallopian tube and secretes a hormone for the maturation of ovum in adult mammals
(c) around the prostate gland of mammals and produces pheromones
(d) in young birds, is lymphatic in nature and produces antibodies
Ans. (d)
38. What is true about sweat glands in humans?
(a) Sweat glands are intimately associated with hair follicles
(b) There are emergency excretory structures to give out urea
(c) Human races inhabiting arctic regions, such as Eskimos have the least number of sweat pores per unit area of the skin
(d) Their secretion makes the skin waterproof and making it unsuitable for the micro-organisms to settle on it.
Ans. (c)
39. Even though limbs and girdles are generally not found in snakes, vestiges of the pelvic girdle and hind limbs persist in:
(a) king cobra
(b) sea snake
(c) python
(d) viper
Ans. (c)
40. Which of the following animal are included under Enteropneusta?
(i) Ptychodera
(ii) Cephalodiscus
(iii) Rhabdopleura
(iv) Balanogalossus
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iv
Ans. (d)
41. Which one of the following orders of mammals possesses
homodont dentition
(a) Monotremata
(b) Marsupialia
(c) Chiroptera
(d) Cetacea
Ans. (d)
42. Ganoids scales are present in
(a) Labeo
(b) Anguilla
(c) Amia
(d) Lepidosteus
Ans. (d)
43. Wheel organ and Hatchet’s pit are present in
(a) Myxine
(b) Petromyzon
(c) Herd mania
(d) Branchiostoma
Ans. (d)
44. Which one of the following is neither a fish nor a snake but an amphibian?
(a) Anguilla
(b) Typhlops
(c) Ophiosaurus
(d) Ichthyophis
Ans. (d)
45. Consider the following statements
(i) Didelphis is a pouch mammal.
(ii) Male and female of Echidna have functional mammary gland.
(iii) Macaca mulatta is an anthropoid ape.
(iv) Carnassial teeth are well developed in Rhinoceros.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) i and ii
(b) i, ii and iii
(c) ii, iii and iv
(d) i, us and iv
Ans. (b)
46. Which one of the following is called a horned toad?
(a) Alytes
(b) Rhacophorus
(c) Phrynosoma
(d) Hyla
Ans. (c)
47. Uropygial gland is not present in
(a) Pavo
(b) Psittacula
(c) Corvus
(d) Struthio
Ans. (d)
48. Consider the following statements:
(i) Tornaria larva of Balanoglossus leads a benthic life.
(ii) Full grown Tornaria larva of Balanoglossus has paired eye spots, apical plates and three ciliated bands.
(iii) Notochord persists throughout live in Balanoglossus.
(iv) Genital wings are absent m Balanoglossus.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) iii and iv
Ans. (a)
49. Tiedemann’s body of Asterias is concerned with
(a) reproduction
(b) excretion
(c) production of amoebocytes
(d) digestion
Ans. (c)
50. Consider the following statements
(i) Dicondylic skull is characteristic of all amniotes.
(ii) The horn of Indian Rhinoceros is formed by gluing of epidermal keratin fibres.
(iii) The jaw of placental mammal is formed by a single bone called dentary.
(iv) Sweat glands are absent in Cetacea and Sirenia.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) i and iv
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
Ans. (b)
Zoology - Zoology Exam Model test for IAS
Free Online Upsc Ias Practice and Preparation Test Zoology
1. Which one of the following is a feature of blood vascular system in Amphioxus?
(a) Heart is present but there are no arteries or veins
(b) Heart is absent and there is no distinction between arteries and veins
(c) Heart, arteries and veins are present
(d) Heart is absent but arteries and veins are present
Ans. (b)
2. The tunicin in ascidian is similar to
(a) Mucin
(b) Cellulose of plants
(c) Lime
(d) Dentine to teeth
Ans. (b)
3. The correct sequence of various sub-layers in the epidermis of vertebrate integument starting from outside is:
(a) Stratum germinativum, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
(b) Stratum germinativum, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum
(c) Cuticle, endodermis, dermis, hypodermis
(d) Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, spinsum, stratum germinativum
Ans. (d)
4. Which one of the following groups of mammals is considered to be toothless?
(a) Echidna, whalebone whales, anteaters and platypus
(b) Whales, marsupials, anteaters and platypus
(c) Bat, whales, marsupials and Echidna
(d) Echidna, whales, bat and platypus
Ans. (a)
5. Viviparity is a common phenomenon in mammals.
However members of one order of the class are exception.
They do not give birth to young ones. Which one of the following orders constitutes the exception?
(a) Sirenia
(b) Cetacea
(c) Monotremata
(d) Dermoptera
Ans. (c)
6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Copulatory organs Animals
(a) Claspers — Elasmobranch fish
(b) Gonopodium — Male snakes
(c) Hemipenis — Crocodiles
(d) Penis — Telecostean fish
Ans. (a)
7. Neustons are the organisms which
(a) Rest on the bottom of water
(b) Can float on water
(c) Rest or swim on the surface of water
(d) Can swim in water
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following statements is correct? In pigeons?
(a) Both inspiration and expiration are caused by the movement of pectoral muscles during flight
(b) Both inspiration and expiration are caused by the movement of pectoral muscles at the time of rest
(c) Inspiration is caused by the movement of abdominal muscles and expiration by intercostals muscles at the time of rest
(d) Inspiration is caused by the movement of intercostals muscles and expiration by abdominal muscles during flight
Ans. (a)
9. The main excretory organelle in Amphioxus is
(a) Solenocytes
(b) Brown funnels
(c) Hatchet’s nephridium
(d) Atrium
Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following
1. Parapsida
2. Anapsida
3. Diapsida
4. Rhyncocephalia
5. Chelonia
6. Cotylosauria
The correct sequence of text representing hierarchical order for extant tortoises under class Reptilia is
(a) 1, 3, 5
(b) 3, 5
(c) 2, 3, 6
(d) 2, 5
Ans. (d)
11. Consider the following dental formula
I 3/3 C 1/1 Pm 4/5 M 3/3
This dental formula belongs to order
(a) Chiroptera
(b) Dermoptera
(c) Pholidata
(d) Insectivora
Ans. (c)
12. Trochophore larve differs from Tornaria larva in having
(a) Ciliary bands
(b) Nephridia
(c) Apical ciliary plate
(d) Mouth and anus
Ans. (b)
13. The following cranial nerves originate from the brain of a fish
(i) Oculomotor
(ii) Trochlear
(iii) Trigeminal
The correct sequence of these nerves is
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) i, iii, ii
(c) ii, i, iii
(d) iii, i, ii
Ans. (a)
14. Consider the following statement associated with an ascidian
(i) The external covering surrounding the animal is a leathery translucent test or tunic composed of tunicin.
(ii) The foot is made entirely of test that has clear matrix with branchial tentacles.
(iii) The vascular ampullae form vascular areas of bright red patches on the test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
Ans. (d)
15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in Herd mania?
(a) Ventral aorta — Heart — Dorsal aorta — Branchial vessel
(b) Ventral aorta — Dorsal aorta - Heart —Branchial vessel
(c) Branchial vessel — Dorsal aorta - Ventral aorta — Heart
(d) Heart — Dorsal aorta - Ventral aorta — Branchial vessel
Ans. (a)
16. Match list-I (animals) with list-Il (class) and correct answer using the codes given below the select the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Ichthyophis 1. Ayes
B. Onchorynchus 2. Mammalia
C. Archaeopteryx 3. Teleostei
D. Ornithorhynchus 4. Amphibia
5. Elasmobranchi
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 5 1 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 5 4 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (d)
17. Reptiles, birds and mammals renb1e in the character of their
(a) Occipital condyles
(b) Amnion
(c) Homeothermy
(d) Poikilothermy
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of the following glands is homologous to the salivary gland of vertebrates?
(a) Poison gland of snake
(b) Sebaceous gland of mammals
(c) Salt gland of bird
(d) Poison gland of toad
Ans. (a)
19. Sclerotic bones are absent in
(a) Birds
(b) Fishes
(c) Lizards
(d) Humans
Ans. (b)
20. In the statement “Reptiles do not possess first, second and X aortic arches” ‘X’ stands for:
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Ans. (d)
21. Which one of the following animals does not have lymph hearts?
(a) Salamander
(b) Frog
(c) Calotes
(d) Pigeon
Ans. (d)
22. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Opisthonephric kidney — Amniote
(b) Metanephric kidney — Amphibia
(c) Aglomerular kidney — Mammal
(d) Loop of Henle — Bird
Ans. (d)
23. Apart from man, the frontal lobe is seen maximally differentiated in
(a) Elephant
(b) Monkey
(c) Chimpanzee
(d) Whale
Ans. (c)
24. The reptilian skull with a single temporal fossa between the post orbital, squamosal and jugal bones is called
(a) Synapsid skull
(b) Diapsid skull
(c) Parapsid skull
(d) Anapsid skull
Ans. (a)
25. Consider the following features
(i) Absence of jaw
(ii) Vestigial eyes
(iii) Feeding on live and dead fishes
(iv) Larval stages are marine
Which one of the following animals has all the above-mentioned features?
(a) Petromyzon
(b) Amphioxus
(c) Myxine
(d) Lampetra
Ans. (a)
26. In Rana tigrina, the centrum of ninth vertebra is different from those of its other vertebrae and it happens to be
(a) procelous
(b) opisthocelous
(c) heterocelous
(d) acoelous
Ans. (d)
27. The lower jaw in some vertebrates is not directly joined to the cranium but is only suspended by the hyomandibular bone. This type of jaw suspension is known as
(a) Amphistylic
(b) Craniostylic
(c) Autodistylic
(d) Hyostylic
Ans. (c)
28. The inability of the frog to live in brackish and saline waters is related to:
(a) non-availability of food
(b) hostile environment for breeding
(c) problems of osmo-regulation
(d) problems of respiration
Ans. (c)
29. The correct sequence of development of mammalian erythrocytes is
(a) Proerythroblast-Normoblast-Reticulocyte-Erythrocyte
(b) Normoblast-Proerythroblast-Reticulocyte-Eaythrocyte
(c) Reticulocyte-Normoblast-Proerythroblast-Erythrocyte
(d) Reticulocyte-Proerythroblast-Erythrocyte-Normoblast
Ans. (a)
30. Which one of the following communicates with each other through the foramen of Panizzae?
(a) Two systemic arches
(b) Skull and cervical vertebra
(c) Cavity of medulla and fourth ventricle
(d) Cavities of diencephalon and cerebral hemisphere
Ans. (a)
31. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Mammal — Left fourth aortic arch present
(b) Birds — Right fourth aortic arch present
(c) Reptiles — The third and fourth aortic arches alone are present
(d) Frog — The fourth aortic arches of both sides are present
Ans. (b)
32. Match list-I (animals) with list-II (special features in their circulatory system) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Animal) List-II (Special features in their circulatory system)
A. Rana 1. Loss of the right aortic arch
B. Calotes 2. Carotid labyrinth
C. Columba 3. Jugular anastamosis
D. Oryctolagus 4. Ductus caroticus
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (b)
33. The teeth of saw in the sawfish are formed of
(a) modified fibrous connective tissue of dermis
(b) modified cornified derivatives of the stratum germinativum
(c) placoid scales
(d) keratin layer
Ans. (c)
34. The cavity on the squamosal for the articulation of the lower jaw in mammals is known as:
(a) fenestra
(b) alveolus
(c) acetabulum
(d) glanoid cavity
Ans.(d)
35. In reptiles, the part of the cloaca receiving excretory and reproductive ducts is called
(a) coprodaeum
(b) urodaeum
(c) proctodaeum
(d) anus
Ans. (b)
36. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Scale of shark — Dentine
(b) Feathers of pigeon — Keratin
(c) Beak of pigeon — Rhamphotheca
(d) Hairs of rabbit — Collagen
Ans. (d)
37. Bursa fabricius is a gland which is present
(a) in the urodaeum of cloaca and helps in digestion of adult birds
(b) near the fallopian tube and secretes a hormone for the maturation of ovum in adult mammals
(c) around the prostate gland of mammals and produces pheromones
(d) in young birds, is lymphatic in nature and produces antibodies
Ans. (d)
38. What is true about sweat glands in humans?
(a) Sweat glands are intimately associated with hair follicles
(b) There are emergency excretory structures to give out urea
(c) Human races inhabiting arctic regions, such as Eskimos have the least number of sweat pores per unit area of the skin
(d) Their secretion makes the skin waterproof and making it unsuitable for the micro-organisms to settle on it.
Ans. (c)
39. Even though limbs and girdles are generally not found in snakes, vestiges of the pelvic girdle and hind limbs persist in:
(a) king cobra
(b) sea snake
(c) python
(d) viper
Ans. (c)
40. Which of the following animal are included under Enteropneusta?
(i) Ptychodera
(ii) Cephalodiscus
(iii) Rhabdopleura
(iv) Balanogalossus
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iv
Ans. (d)
41. Which one of the following orders of mammals possesses
homodont dentition
(a) Monotremata
(b) Marsupialia
(c) Chiroptera
(d) Cetacea
Ans. (d)
42. Ganoids scales are present in
(a) Labeo
(b) Anguilla
(c) Amia
(d) Lepidosteus
Ans. (d)
43. Wheel organ and Hatchet’s pit are present in
(a) Myxine
(b) Petromyzon
(c) Herd mania
(d) Branchiostoma
Ans. (d)
44. Which one of the following is neither a fish nor a snake but an amphibian?
(a) Anguilla
(b) Typhlops
(c) Ophiosaurus
(d) Ichthyophis
Ans. (d)
45. Consider the following statements
(i) Didelphis is a pouch mammal.
(ii) Male and female of Echidna have functional mammary gland.
(iii) Macaca mulatta is an anthropoid ape.
(iv) Carnassial teeth are well developed in Rhinoceros.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) i and ii
(b) i, ii and iii
(c) ii, iii and iv
(d) i, us and iv
Ans. (b)
46. Which one of the following is called a horned toad?
(a) Alytes
(b) Rhacophorus
(c) Phrynosoma
(d) Hyla
Ans. (c)
47. Uropygial gland is not present in
(a) Pavo
(b) Psittacula
(c) Corvus
(d) Struthio
Ans. (d)
48. Consider the following statements:
(i) Tornaria larva of Balanoglossus leads a benthic life.
(ii) Full grown Tornaria larva of Balanoglossus has paired eye spots, apical plates and three ciliated bands.
(iii) Notochord persists throughout live in Balanoglossus.
(iv) Genital wings are absent m Balanoglossus.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) iii and iv
Ans. (a)
49. Tiedemann’s body of Asterias is concerned with
(a) reproduction
(b) excretion
(c) production of amoebocytes
(d) digestion
Ans. (c)
50. Consider the following statements
(i) Dicondylic skull is characteristic of all amniotes.
(ii) The horn of Indian Rhinoceros is formed by gluing of epidermal keratin fibres.
(iii) The jaw of placental mammal is formed by a single bone called dentary.
(iv) Sweat glands are absent in Cetacea and Sirenia.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) i and iv
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
Ans. (b)
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