electrical engineering MCQ Test
Engg Multiple Choice Questions
Electrical Engineering objective questions MCQ for graduate Engineer
1. The frequency of an LC circuit of a tuned base- tuned emitter type of coupled oscillator having resonant frequency of crystal as a is
(a) slightly less than ω
(b) equal to ω
(c) slightly more than ω
(d) at least 2 ω
Ans:-A
2. In an operational amplifier the bandwidth (B) in terms of rise time (t) is given ’by’
(a) 0.35 / tr
(b) 1 / 0.35 tr
(c) 0.35 tr
(d) tr / 0.35
Ans:-B
3. The figure of merit of a logic family is given by the product of
(a) gain and bandwidth
(b) propagation delay time and power dissipation
(c) fanout and propagation delay time
(d) noise margin and power dissipation
Ans:-A
4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I
(Boolean statements is true)
A. AØB=O
B. A+B=O
C. A .B=O
D. AØB=l
List II
(Conditions under which)
1. A≠B
2. A=B
3. A=l and B=l
4. A=l and B=O
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans:-C
5. For an energy signal g(t) and its time-shifted version g (t- r), the
(a) amplitude spectra are identical and their phase spectra are also identical
(b) amplitude spectra are identical but their phase spectra are different
(c) amplitude spectra are different but their phase spectra are identical
(d) amplitude spectra are different and their phase spectra are also different
Ans:-B
6. If the number of bits in a PCM system is increased from ii to rn+ 1, the signal-to-quanhisation noise ratio will increase by a factor
(a) (n+1) / n
(b) (n+1)2/n2
(c) 2
(d) 4
Ans:-B
7. A 600 Hz signal is sampled at a rate of 1000 samples per second. The frequency components of sampled signal will consist of
(a) 400 Hz and 600 Hz
(b) 400 Hz, 600 Hz and 1200 Hz.
(c) 600 Hz, 800 Hz, 1000 Hz and. 1200 Hz
(d) 600 Hz, 1000 Hz, 1200 Hz and 1400 Hz
Ans:-A
8. Consider the following statements regarding colour television:
1. Only chrominance signals occupy the full bandwidth.
2. Only luminance signals occupy the full bandwidth.
3. All the three signals occupy the full bandwidth.
4. The bandwidths of both the chrominance signals are equal
5. The bandwidth of luminance signals is smaller than that of the chrominance signals.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 alone is correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 5 alone is correct
Ans:-A
9. Instrument Leading System (ILS) and Ground Controlled Approach (GCA) are aircraft landing systems, wherein
(a) both use radar units on the ground
(b) both use special receivers on board the aircraft
(c) ILS uses special receivers in the aircraft and GCA uses radar units on the ground
(d) ILS uses radar units on the ground and GCA uses special receivers on the ground
Ans:-D
10. The standard test tone for audio portion of CCIR circuits is
(a) 0 d B m at 1000 Hz
(b) —3OdBmat800Hz
(c) 0 d B m at 400 Hz
(d) —3OdBmat400Hz
Ans:-A
11. In dc machine, the field system has to be provided on stator unlike synchronous machines wherein it could be on any member, because
(a) it reduces field structure iron losses
(b) it gives more uniform air-gap flux distribution
(c) commentator action is not possible otherwise
(d) dc machines are comparatively low rating machines
Ans:-D
12. In a dc generator operating on load with its brushes on the geometrical neutral axis (GNA), the magnetic neutral axis (MNA) is shifted in the direction of rotation
Now, if the brushes are given a lead of 90° (electrical), then the MNA will
(a) shift forward by 90°
(b) shift forward by more than 90°
(c) shift forward by less than 90
(d) coincide with the GNA
Ans:-D
13. A cumulatively compounded dc motor runs at 1000 rpm at no-load. On full load, the flux increases by 10%, whereas the full load drop in the combined resistance of the armature and series field is 5% Neglecting magnetic saturation, the full load speed will be nearly
(a) 863 rpm
(b) 909 rpm
(c) 1000rpm
(d) 1050rpm
Ans:-C
14. A dc over compound generator is supplying power to an infinite bus. If the prime mover is accidentally cut off, the dc machine will
(a) stop running
(b) run as cumulatively compounded motor in reverse direction
(c) run as differentially compounded motor in reverse direction
(d) run as differentially compounded motor in same direction
Ans:-C
15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(Load pf)
A. Zero leading
B. Unity
C. Zero lagging
D. Zero with armature terminals suddenly short-circuited
List II
(Nature of armature flux in an alternator)
1. Demagnetising
2. Magnetising
3. Cross magnetizing
4. Initially constant, demagnetizing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans:-B
16. A dc shunt motor is run under the following conditions:
1. Normal voltage with no additional resistance in armature or field circuits.
2. 50% normal voltage with no additional resistance in armature or field circuits.
3. Normal voltage with a small external resistance in the armature circuit of a value equal to the armature resistance.
4. Normal speed of the motor would increase in the sequence
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,4,3,2
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 2,3,1,4
Ans:-B
17. Consider the following statements about a three- phase synchronous generator synchronized to an infinite bus when its mechanical input is increased gradually with field current held constant:
1. The power factor of the current supplied becomes more lagging.
2. The power factor of the current supplied improves.
3. The power factor remains unity.
4. The load angle is increased.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 alone is correct
(b) 2 alone is correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Ans:-A
18. Which of the following will change in a three- phase synchronous motor, as a consequence of excitation variations?
1. Pull-out torque
2. Torque angle
3. Magnitude and power factor of stator current
4. Output power
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:-B
19. Following a sudden short-circuit at the terminals of a 3-phase unloaded synchronous generator, the initial effect of the pole-face damper winding, is to
(a) establish the armature flux through the direct-axis magnetic circuit of the machine
(b) allow only partial linkage of the armature flux with the main field winding
(c) confine the armature flux to completely link the damper winding
(d) Repel the armature flux and confine it to the leakage flux path in the air-gap.
Ans:-C
20. Consider the following statements about single- phase reluctance motor:
1. The starting torque is a function of rotor position.
2. The torque developed at sub synchronous speeds varies sinusoidally.
3. Starting is asynchronous but running is synchronous.
4. It pulls synchronism on switching on dc excitation.
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans:-D
Sunday, July 31, 2011
electrical engineering solved question paper
electrical engineering solved question paper
electrical engineering Solved Question Papers
1. If the aperture of the radar antenna is doubled, then the radar range will increase by a factor of
(a)√2
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 16
Ans:-A
2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(Systems)
A. Satellite Communication
B. Line Carrier Telephony
C. Monophonic Broadcasting
D. Stereophonic Broadcasting
List II
(Modulation)
1. SSB
2. AM
3. SQPSKJOQPSK
4. FM
5. PM
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 3 5 2
(c) 2 5 1 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans:-D
3. Consider the following types of machines:
1. 2-phase A. C servomotor
2. Conventional 2-phase induction motor
3. Stepper motor
4. Tacho generator
The rotors are generally of drag cup construction in the case of
(a) l, 2 and 4
(b) l and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l and 4
Ans:-D
4. Consider the following statements regarding the effect of adding a pole in the open-loop transfer function on the closed-loop step response:
1. It decreases the maximum overshoot.
2. It increases the rise lime.
3. It reduces the ‘bandwidth.
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans:-B
5. The first two rows of Routh’s tabulation of a fourth-order system are:
S4 1 10 5
S5 2 20
The number of roots of the system lying on the right half of s-plane is
(a) Zero
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans:-C
6. A control system whose step response is —0.5 (1+ e-2t ) is cascaded to another control block whose impulse response is e-4. The transfer function of the cascaded combination is
(a) 1 / (s + 1) (s + 2)
(b) 1 / s(s+1)
(c) 1 / s(s+2)
(d) 0.5 / (s+1)(s+2)
Ans:-B
7. The error response of a second order system to a step input is obtained as
E(t) = 1.66 e-8t sin (6t + 37°) The damping ratio is
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.8
(d) 1.0
Ans:-D
8. In a linear system, an input of 5 sin ω t produces an output of 10 cos ω t. The output corresponding to input 10 cost wt will be equal to
(a) +5 sin ω t
(b) —5 sin ω t
(c) +20 sin ω t
(d) 20 sin ω t
Ans:-C
9. The resistances 100 Ω ± 5 Ω and ± 15 Ω are connected in series. If the errors are spec Wed as standard deviations, the resultant error will be
(a) ±10 Ω
(b) ±10.6 Ω
(c) ±.15.8Ω
(d) ±20 Ω
Ans:-A
10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(Parameter measured)
A. Audio frequency
B. High Q inductor
C. Dielectric loss
D. Low Q inductor
List II
(Bridge)
1. Maxwell bridge
2. Hay bridge
3. Wien bridge
4. Schering bridge
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans:-A
11.. A sinusoidal waveform, when observed on an oscilloscope has peak to peak amplitude of 6 cm. If the vertical sensitivity setting c 5 V/cm, the rms value of the voltage is
(a) 10.6 V
(b) 11.1 V
(c) 12.6V
(d) 15 V
Ans:-A
12. In the two-wattmeter method of measuring power in a balanced three-phase circuit, one wattmeter shows zero and the other positive maximum. The load power factor is
(a) zero
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.866
(d) 1.0
Ans:-B
13. A 35 V dc supply is connected across a resistance of 600 in series with an unknown resistance Rx A voltmeter having a resistance of 1.2 k Ω is connected across 600Ω resistance and reads 5 V. The value of resistance Rx will be
(a) 120Ω
(b) 400Ω
(c) 1.8 Ω
(d) 2.4Ω
Ans:-A
14. ‘Creep’ in energy meters can be prevented by
(a) using extra turns of the voltage coil
(b) having two holes on opposite sides of the disc
(c) using a stronger brake magnet
(d) using steel laminations of high permeability
Ans:-D
15. An integrating digital voltmeter measures
(a) true average value
(b) rms value
(c) peak value
(d) peak to peak value
Ans:-A
16. A frequency modulation wave is passed through
1. harmonic generator
2. frequency translator
The modulation index is
(a) not changed in either case
(b) changed only in1
(c) changed only in 2
(d) changed in both 1 and 2
Ans:-B
17. For high speed operation which of the folio wing parameters may have to be minimized?
1. Junction capacitance
2. Dynamic forward resistance
3. Depletion layer thickness
4. Charge storage
Choose the correct set of parameters using the codes giving below:
Codes:
(a) l and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) l and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans:-D
18. A MOSFET having gate-source and gate-drain capacitances as Cgs, and Cgd respectively Is connected as a CS amplifier having voltage gain = -Av The input capacitance for this amplifier is
(a) Cgs + Cgd
(b) Cgs + (l+AV) CSd
(c) Cgs (1 + Av) + Cgd
(d) Cgs — Cgd
Ans:-B
19. An R-C coupled transistor amplifier has a lower 3-dB frequency of 100 Hz due .to coupling capacitor. The emitter bypass capacitor is of such a value that the lower 3-dB frequency due to emitter degeneration alone is also 100 Hz. The lower 3-dB frequency of the stage will be
(a) 64 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 156 Hz
(d) 244 Hz
Ans:-C
20. A class B push-pull transistor amplifier is operated under optimum conditions. Vcc = 30 V, Audio Power = 4.5 watts. With the usual simplifying assumptions
(a) the DC power drawn from Vcc is 9 watts
(b) the power dissipated by each transistor is 2.25 watts
(c) the reflected resistance in the primary of the transformer is 200 ohms
(d) the peak ac collector current is 0.3 amps
Ans:-B
electrical engineering Solved Question Papers
1. If the aperture of the radar antenna is doubled, then the radar range will increase by a factor of
(a)√2
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 16
Ans:-A
2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(Systems)
A. Satellite Communication
B. Line Carrier Telephony
C. Monophonic Broadcasting
D. Stereophonic Broadcasting
List II
(Modulation)
1. SSB
2. AM
3. SQPSKJOQPSK
4. FM
5. PM
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 3 5 2
(c) 2 5 1 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans:-D
3. Consider the following types of machines:
1. 2-phase A. C servomotor
2. Conventional 2-phase induction motor
3. Stepper motor
4. Tacho generator
The rotors are generally of drag cup construction in the case of
(a) l, 2 and 4
(b) l and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l and 4
Ans:-D
4. Consider the following statements regarding the effect of adding a pole in the open-loop transfer function on the closed-loop step response:
1. It decreases the maximum overshoot.
2. It increases the rise lime.
3. It reduces the ‘bandwidth.
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans:-B
5. The first two rows of Routh’s tabulation of a fourth-order system are:
S4 1 10 5
S5 2 20
The number of roots of the system lying on the right half of s-plane is
(a) Zero
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans:-C
6. A control system whose step response is —0.5 (1+ e-2t ) is cascaded to another control block whose impulse response is e-4. The transfer function of the cascaded combination is
(a) 1 / (s + 1) (s + 2)
(b) 1 / s(s+1)
(c) 1 / s(s+2)
(d) 0.5 / (s+1)(s+2)
Ans:-B
7. The error response of a second order system to a step input is obtained as
E(t) = 1.66 e-8t sin (6t + 37°) The damping ratio is
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.8
(d) 1.0
Ans:-D
8. In a linear system, an input of 5 sin ω t produces an output of 10 cos ω t. The output corresponding to input 10 cost wt will be equal to
(a) +5 sin ω t
(b) —5 sin ω t
(c) +20 sin ω t
(d) 20 sin ω t
Ans:-C
9. The resistances 100 Ω ± 5 Ω and ± 15 Ω are connected in series. If the errors are spec Wed as standard deviations, the resultant error will be
(a) ±10 Ω
(b) ±10.6 Ω
(c) ±.15.8Ω
(d) ±20 Ω
Ans:-A
10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(Parameter measured)
A. Audio frequency
B. High Q inductor
C. Dielectric loss
D. Low Q inductor
List II
(Bridge)
1. Maxwell bridge
2. Hay bridge
3. Wien bridge
4. Schering bridge
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans:-A
11.. A sinusoidal waveform, when observed on an oscilloscope has peak to peak amplitude of 6 cm. If the vertical sensitivity setting c 5 V/cm, the rms value of the voltage is
(a) 10.6 V
(b) 11.1 V
(c) 12.6V
(d) 15 V
Ans:-A
12. In the two-wattmeter method of measuring power in a balanced three-phase circuit, one wattmeter shows zero and the other positive maximum. The load power factor is
(a) zero
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.866
(d) 1.0
Ans:-B
13. A 35 V dc supply is connected across a resistance of 600 in series with an unknown resistance Rx A voltmeter having a resistance of 1.2 k Ω is connected across 600Ω resistance and reads 5 V. The value of resistance Rx will be
(a) 120Ω
(b) 400Ω
(c) 1.8 Ω
(d) 2.4Ω
Ans:-A
14. ‘Creep’ in energy meters can be prevented by
(a) using extra turns of the voltage coil
(b) having two holes on opposite sides of the disc
(c) using a stronger brake magnet
(d) using steel laminations of high permeability
Ans:-D
15. An integrating digital voltmeter measures
(a) true average value
(b) rms value
(c) peak value
(d) peak to peak value
Ans:-A
16. A frequency modulation wave is passed through
1. harmonic generator
2. frequency translator
The modulation index is
(a) not changed in either case
(b) changed only in1
(c) changed only in 2
(d) changed in both 1 and 2
Ans:-B
17. For high speed operation which of the folio wing parameters may have to be minimized?
1. Junction capacitance
2. Dynamic forward resistance
3. Depletion layer thickness
4. Charge storage
Choose the correct set of parameters using the codes giving below:
Codes:
(a) l and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) l and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans:-D
18. A MOSFET having gate-source and gate-drain capacitances as Cgs, and Cgd respectively Is connected as a CS amplifier having voltage gain = -Av The input capacitance for this amplifier is
(a) Cgs + Cgd
(b) Cgs + (l+AV) CSd
(c) Cgs (1 + Av) + Cgd
(d) Cgs — Cgd
Ans:-B
19. An R-C coupled transistor amplifier has a lower 3-dB frequency of 100 Hz due .to coupling capacitor. The emitter bypass capacitor is of such a value that the lower 3-dB frequency due to emitter degeneration alone is also 100 Hz. The lower 3-dB frequency of the stage will be
(a) 64 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 156 Hz
(d) 244 Hz
Ans:-C
20. A class B push-pull transistor amplifier is operated under optimum conditions. Vcc = 30 V, Audio Power = 4.5 watts. With the usual simplifying assumptions
(a) the DC power drawn from Vcc is 9 watts
(b) the power dissipated by each transistor is 2.25 watts
(c) the reflected resistance in the primary of the transformer is 200 ohms
(d) the peak ac collector current is 0.3 amps
Ans:-B
Saturday, July 30, 2011
Differentiate between physical and logical records?
Differentiate between physical and logical records?
Physical records are unit of data for input or output, such as a punched card a tape block,
or a record on a disk. One Or more logical records may be contained in one physical record. Logical records are Cornplçte unit of information that contains all fields describing something. In an inventory file containing 2000 different product items, there are 2000 logical records, one for each item.
Physical records are unit of data for input or output, such as a punched card a tape block,
or a record on a disk. One Or more logical records may be contained in one physical record. Logical records are Cornplçte unit of information that contains all fields describing something. In an inventory file containing 2000 different product items, there are 2000 logical records, one for each item.
CONFIGURATION SECTION
CONFIGURATION SECTION
This section is optional. It describes the Computer sy tern used for compiling the program and for executing it. For the purpose there are two paragraphs in thh section.
SOURCE-COMPUTER.
OBJECT-COMPUTER.
The purpose of the former is to give the name of the computer to be used for program compilation and the later is for the one to be used for its executiQn. Being paragragh names, it must be written starting in Margin-A and immediately followed with a period. The entry with in each para is to be the name of the computer system. it is used only for documentation and as such anything can be written within these paras.
SOURCE-COMPUTER. IBM-PC
OBJECT-COMPUTER. IBM-PC
These are the only two entries within the CONFIGURATION SECTION. It should be followed with INPUT-OUTPUT SECTION as follows:
ENVIRONMENT DIVlSIN
CONFIGURATION SECTION.
SOURCE-COMPUTER.IBM-PC.
OBJECT-COMPUTER.IBM-PC.
INPUT-OUTPUT SECTION.
There is another optional paragraph in the CONFIGURATiON SECTION named SPECIAL-NAMES.
INPUT- OUTPUT SECTION
This section is a must to be given if the user is using any file within his program for the purpose of input or output e.g., if he is using a disk file for reading the data and printing it on the printer, he has to use this section to describe these files. This section has two paragraphs:
FILE-CONTROL
• 1-0-CONTROL
This Para can be skipped i7the user does not wish to use any file in his program. A simple program segment is given below:
1NPUT-OU’TPUT SECTION
FILE-CONTROL
SELECT MARKS-FILE ASSIGN TO DISK
ORGANIZATION IS LINE SEQUENTIAL
ACCESS IS SEQUENTIAL
FILE STATUS IS STA’US-C0DE
SELECT RESULT-FILE ASSIGN TO PRINTER. 1-0-CONTROL
SAME AREA FOR
MARKS-FILE
RESULT-FILE
Data Division also has two main sections:
1. The FILE SECTION, as the name indicates, is used to describe the format of data in all the files, whether input or output files. This section is optional. If the program is not using any file this section can be skipped. It must have entries for all the files being used.
2. The WORKING-STORAGE section on the other hand is used to define th data fields required over and above the ones defined in the FILE SECTION. These may be required to stor some intermediate working values or some constants used in the program.
This section is optional. It describes the Computer sy tern used for compiling the program and for executing it. For the purpose there are two paragraphs in thh section.
SOURCE-COMPUTER.
OBJECT-COMPUTER.
The purpose of the former is to give the name of the computer to be used for program compilation and the later is for the one to be used for its executiQn. Being paragragh names, it must be written starting in Margin-A and immediately followed with a period. The entry with in each para is to be the name of the computer system. it is used only for documentation and as such anything can be written within these paras.
SOURCE-COMPUTER. IBM-PC
OBJECT-COMPUTER. IBM-PC
These are the only two entries within the CONFIGURATION SECTION. It should be followed with INPUT-OUTPUT SECTION as follows:
ENVIRONMENT DIVlSIN
CONFIGURATION SECTION.
SOURCE-COMPUTER.IBM-PC.
OBJECT-COMPUTER.IBM-PC.
INPUT-OUTPUT SECTION.
There is another optional paragraph in the CONFIGURATiON SECTION named SPECIAL-NAMES.
INPUT- OUTPUT SECTION
This section is a must to be given if the user is using any file within his program for the purpose of input or output e.g., if he is using a disk file for reading the data and printing it on the printer, he has to use this section to describe these files. This section has two paragraphs:
FILE-CONTROL
• 1-0-CONTROL
This Para can be skipped i7the user does not wish to use any file in his program. A simple program segment is given below:
1NPUT-OU’TPUT SECTION
FILE-CONTROL
SELECT MARKS-FILE ASSIGN TO DISK
ORGANIZATION IS LINE SEQUENTIAL
ACCESS IS SEQUENTIAL
FILE STATUS IS STA’US-C0DE
SELECT RESULT-FILE ASSIGN TO PRINTER. 1-0-CONTROL
SAME AREA FOR
MARKS-FILE
RESULT-FILE
Data Division also has two main sections:
1. The FILE SECTION, as the name indicates, is used to describe the format of data in all the files, whether input or output files. This section is optional. If the program is not using any file this section can be skipped. It must have entries for all the files being used.
2. The WORKING-STORAGE section on the other hand is used to define th data fields required over and above the ones defined in the FILE SECTION. These may be required to stor some intermediate working values or some constants used in the program.
COBOL Section
COBOL Section
Every COBOL prograni is divided into four divisiors. Every division is divided into sections. Sections may be divided into paragraphs and each pragraph may be divided into sentences. Every sentence may be divided into statements. Statements is divided into words.
Programà Divisions a Sections a Parigraphs a Sentences a Statements àWords
All division names, section names and paragraph names are started from margin A and others are started
from margin B. Margin A is from 8 to II columns and margin B is from 12 to 72 columns. Each COBOL
program should start with the division header, i.e., IDENTIFICATION Division. A COBOL suurce program always contains four divisions in the following order:
1. Identification Division
2. Environment Division
3. Data Division
4. Procedure Division
We cannot change the sequence of these divisions. They should be written in same order.
Environernnt Division has two sections:
1. CONFIGURATION SECTION
2. INPUT-OUTPUT SECTION
Every COBOL prograni is divided into four divisiors. Every division is divided into sections. Sections may be divided into paragraphs and each pragraph may be divided into sentences. Every sentence may be divided into statements. Statements is divided into words.
Programà Divisions a Sections a Parigraphs a Sentences a Statements àWords
All division names, section names and paragraph names are started from margin A and others are started
from margin B. Margin A is from 8 to II columns and margin B is from 12 to 72 columns. Each COBOL
program should start with the division header, i.e., IDENTIFICATION Division. A COBOL suurce program always contains four divisions in the following order:
1. Identification Division
2. Environment Division
3. Data Division
4. Procedure Division
We cannot change the sequence of these divisions. They should be written in same order.
Environernnt Division has two sections:
1. CONFIGURATION SECTION
2. INPUT-OUTPUT SECTION
Functions of CPU in a Computer?
Functions of CPU in a Computer?
All the arithmetic operations, taking decisions and control of all computer devices is done by central processing unit. It comprises of an arithmetic-logic section for computations and a primary storage section for holding the instructions and related data for processing. It is divided into three parts.
Arithmetic Logic Unit ( A.L.U.)
It does all the calculations and maes decision on the given information. It is that part of the, central processing unit that performs ai*hmetic and logic operations. This comprises of a number of accu mulators or registers. A register is placed within the A.L.U. where instructions or data are held temporarily.
Control Unit (C.U.)
It controls all the computer devices. It interprets source information to target information. It controls input and output devices and also memory units. It is that part of the processor which is responsible for controlling sequence of operations. The important function of control unit in the modern computer is that
input—output time-sharing.
Temporary Storage Unit (T.S.U.)
Computer stores all the data and inforamtion in the temporary storage unit to access it randomly. Whenever we want to receive any information from the computer memory it will give us randomly. When
electric power will be switched OFF, every thing stored in temporary storage unit will wash off.
All the arithmetic operations, taking decisions and control of all computer devices is done by central processing unit. It comprises of an arithmetic-logic section for computations and a primary storage section for holding the instructions and related data for processing. It is divided into three parts.
Arithmetic Logic Unit ( A.L.U.)
It does all the calculations and maes decision on the given information. It is that part of the, central processing unit that performs ai*hmetic and logic operations. This comprises of a number of accu mulators or registers. A register is placed within the A.L.U. where instructions or data are held temporarily.
Control Unit (C.U.)
It controls all the computer devices. It interprets source information to target information. It controls input and output devices and also memory units. It is that part of the processor which is responsible for controlling sequence of operations. The important function of control unit in the modern computer is that
input—output time-sharing.
Temporary Storage Unit (T.S.U.)
Computer stores all the data and inforamtion in the temporary storage unit to access it randomly. Whenever we want to receive any information from the computer memory it will give us randomly. When
electric power will be switched OFF, every thing stored in temporary storage unit will wash off.
algorithm to find the sum of natural numbers
algorithm to find the sum of natural numbers
ALGORITHM is a prescribed set of well—defined unambiguous rules or process for the solution of a problem in a finite number of steps. Commonly used as integral parts of computeçprograms. This algorithmic language is designed for expressing algorithms.
Algorithm Steps:
1. Initialize total marks and total passed to ZERO.
2. Take marks of next students.
3. Add 1 to total passed.
4. Add 1 to total boys.
5. Print out total passed. -
6. STOP
ALGORITHM is a prescribed set of well—defined unambiguous rules or process for the solution of a problem in a finite number of steps. Commonly used as integral parts of computeçprograms. This algorithmic language is designed for expressing algorithms.
Algorithm Steps:
1. Initialize total marks and total passed to ZERO.
2. Take marks of next students.
3. Add 1 to total passed.
4. Add 1 to total boys.
5. Print out total passed. -
6. STOP
Data Types in BASIC Numbers and Characters strings
Data Types in BASIC
Data is classified in to two types, Numbers and Characters strings. For example:
The Numbers : +16 ,—35.40 1000 12.121212-1245 all represent numeric data, whilist the groups of
characters “WELCOME HOME”“3911 ROSHANPURA, NA! SARAK, DELHI” all represent character string data.
Data is classified in to two types, Numbers and Characters strings. For example:
The Numbers : +16 ,—35.40 1000 12.121212-1245 all represent numeric data, whilist the groups of
characters “WELCOME HOME”“3911 ROSHANPURA, NA! SARAK, DELHI” all represent character string data.
Functions of Control Unit in a Compurer?
Functions of Control Unit in a Compurer?
Portion of the Central Processing Unit that directs the step by step operation of the entire computing system. It is also responsible for directing the operation of the computer in accordance with the instructions in the program.
Portion of the Central Processing Unit that directs the step by step operation of the entire computing system. It is also responsible for directing the operation of the computer in accordance with the instructions in the program.
word star commands
word star commands
WordStar Command Summary
word star commands
(a) .LM : Set Left Margin.
(b) .OP : On)i Page.
(c) .MT : Set Top Margin.
(d) .LS : Set Line Spacing.
(e) .PA : Page Break.
(f) .CW : Set Character Width.
WordStar Command Summary
word star commands
(a) .LM : Set Left Margin.
(b) .OP : On)i Page.
(c) .MT : Set Top Margin.
(d) .LS : Set Line Spacing.
(e) .PA : Page Break.
(f) .CW : Set Character Width.
computer basic definitions
computer basic definitions
Basic Computer Terms
(a) Multiprogramming: Running tvo or more programs concurrently in the same computer. Each program is allotted its own place in place in memory and its own peripherals, but all share the Central Processing Unit.
Multiprocessing: The simultaneous execution of two or more sequences of instruction by multiple central Processing Units unr common control.
(b) Software: The programs or instructions that tell a computer what to do.
Hardware: The Physical components or equipment that make up a computer system, such as a keybord, Floppy disk or drive. Monitor etc.
(c) Compiler: A program whose purpose is that of translating high-level language statements into a form that can directly activate the computer hardware.
Interpreter: A language translator that converts each source language statement into machine code and executes it immediately, statement by statement.
(d) System Software: Programs that run the computer system and aid the applications programmer in doing his/her task. Typically developed by a vendor and sold to a computer user.
Application software : Programs written by programmers within an organisation that anable the computer to produce useful work, such as specific Inventory Control, Financial Accounting or Hospital Management tasks.
(e) Computer: An Electronic device capable of step by step operation of the entire computing system.
Control unit is responsible for directing the operation of the computer in accordance with the in structions
in the program.
Calculator: Any Mechanical or electronic machine used for performing calculations.
(a) Track
Path along which data are recorded on a continuous or rotational medium, such an magnetic tape or magnetic disk.
(b) Cylinder
It is a vertical column of tracks on a magnetic disk pack. The corresponding tracks on each surface of a disk pack.
(c) Sector
One of the peripheral elements into which each track of a disk surface s divided is called a sector.
(d) Stack
Sequential data list stored in internal storage is called stack. Rather than addressing the stack elements by their memory locations, the computer retrieves information from the stack by propping elements from the (LIFO) or from the bottom (FIFO).
(a) Encoder
It is a device that produces machine readable output, such as paper tape, either
manual keyboard depressions or from data already recorded in some other code.
(b) FlipJIop
A device or circuit containing active elements capable of assuming either one of
stable states at a given time. Synonymous with toggle.
(c) Clock Circuit’
The circuit used in the timing device that generates the basic periodic signal used
control the timing of all operations in a synchronous computer.
(d) Monolithic Integrated Circuit
Circuit formed in a single piece of the substrate material, as opposed to a hybrid circuit,
which individual (physically separate) circuit components are electrically interconnected to form the final circuit is called Monolithic Integrated Circuit.
(e) Debugging
It is a procedure to detect, locate and remove, all mistakes in a computer program and..9. malfunctions in thomputing system itself. Synonymous with troubleshoot.
Basic Computer Terms
(a) Multiprogramming: Running tvo or more programs concurrently in the same computer. Each program is allotted its own place in place in memory and its own peripherals, but all share the Central Processing Unit.
Multiprocessing: The simultaneous execution of two or more sequences of instruction by multiple central Processing Units unr common control.
(b) Software: The programs or instructions that tell a computer what to do.
Hardware: The Physical components or equipment that make up a computer system, such as a keybord, Floppy disk or drive. Monitor etc.
(c) Compiler: A program whose purpose is that of translating high-level language statements into a form that can directly activate the computer hardware.
Interpreter: A language translator that converts each source language statement into machine code and executes it immediately, statement by statement.
(d) System Software: Programs that run the computer system and aid the applications programmer in doing his/her task. Typically developed by a vendor and sold to a computer user.
Application software : Programs written by programmers within an organisation that anable the computer to produce useful work, such as specific Inventory Control, Financial Accounting or Hospital Management tasks.
(e) Computer: An Electronic device capable of step by step operation of the entire computing system.
Control unit is responsible for directing the operation of the computer in accordance with the in structions
in the program.
Calculator: Any Mechanical or electronic machine used for performing calculations.
(a) Track
Path along which data are recorded on a continuous or rotational medium, such an magnetic tape or magnetic disk.
(b) Cylinder
It is a vertical column of tracks on a magnetic disk pack. The corresponding tracks on each surface of a disk pack.
(c) Sector
One of the peripheral elements into which each track of a disk surface s divided is called a sector.
(d) Stack
Sequential data list stored in internal storage is called stack. Rather than addressing the stack elements by their memory locations, the computer retrieves information from the stack by propping elements from the (LIFO) or from the bottom (FIFO).
(a) Encoder
It is a device that produces machine readable output, such as paper tape, either
manual keyboard depressions or from data already recorded in some other code.
(b) FlipJIop
A device or circuit containing active elements capable of assuming either one of
stable states at a given time. Synonymous with toggle.
(c) Clock Circuit’
The circuit used in the timing device that generates the basic periodic signal used
control the timing of all operations in a synchronous computer.
(d) Monolithic Integrated Circuit
Circuit formed in a single piece of the substrate material, as opposed to a hybrid circuit,
which individual (physically separate) circuit components are electrically interconnected to form the final circuit is called Monolithic Integrated Circuit.
(e) Debugging
It is a procedure to detect, locate and remove, all mistakes in a computer program and..9. malfunctions in thomputing system itself. Synonymous with troubleshoot.
Friday, July 29, 2011
Input Output devices
What is an Output and an Input device ? Give two examples of each.
answer:
Input
Introduction of data from an external storage medum into a computer’s internal storage- unit.
Example:
(I) Key Board: Input device used to key programs and data into the computer’s storage.
(ii)’Mouse: Device for moving a cursor or other object arround on the display screen.
Output:
Data transferred from a computer’s internal stdrage unit to some storage or output device.
Example:
(i) Monitor: Visual Display Unit.
(ii) Printer: Output device that produces hard copy output.
answer:
Input
Introduction of data from an external storage medum into a computer’s internal storage- unit.
Example:
(I) Key Board: Input device used to key programs and data into the computer’s storage.
(ii)’Mouse: Device for moving a cursor or other object arround on the display screen.
Output:
Data transferred from a computer’s internal stdrage unit to some storage or output device.
Example:
(i) Monitor: Visual Display Unit.
(ii) Printer: Output device that produces hard copy output.
four major functions of DOS operating system
four major functions of DOS operating system
Ans. () Booting the Computer.
(ii) Loading all Internal Commands in Memmory.
(iii) Controling all Input and Output systems of Computer.
(iv) Controling the File Managcment of a Computer.
Ans. () Booting the Computer.
(ii) Loading all Internal Commands in Memmory.
(iii) Controling all Input and Output systems of Computer.
(iv) Controling the File Managcment of a Computer.
Computer Abbreviations for exam
Computer Abbreviations for exam
PSC Questions: Computer Questions Bank PO Exams
COMPUTER ABBREVIATIONS Latest GeneralKnowledge
CAD : Computer Aided Design.
CAM : Computer Aided Manufacturing.
DTP : Desl#Top Publishing.
COBOL : Common Business Oriented Language.
CD-ROM : Compact Disk-Read-Only Memory.
EPROM : Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
BIOS : Binary Input-Output System.
PSC Questions: Computer Questions Bank PO Exams
COMPUTER ABBREVIATIONS Latest GeneralKnowledge
CAD : Computer Aided Design.
CAM : Computer Aided Manufacturing.
DTP : Desl#Top Publishing.
COBOL : Common Business Oriented Language.
CD-ROM : Compact Disk-Read-Only Memory.
EPROM : Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
BIOS : Binary Input-Output System.
Thursday, July 28, 2011
Objective electrical engineering solved question papers
Objective electrical engineering solved question papers
Electrical Engineering objective questions MCQ
Electrical Engineering Solved Sample Questions
1. A single-phase induction on motor with only the main winding excited would produce zero torque at
(a) synchronous speed only
(b) starting and synchronous speed
(c) starting only
(d) starting and a speed slightly below synchronous speed
Ans:-B
2. A polyphase slip-ring induction machine has the stator and rotor windings wound for
(a) the same number of phase 6ut different number of pairs of poles
(b) the same number of pairs of poles but different number of phases
(c) the same number of phases with number of pairs of poles either equal or different
(d) the same number of pairs of poles with number of phases either equal or different
Ans:-D
3. The single-phase Induction motor is started with
(a) capacitance connection
(b) inductance connection
(c) resistance connection
(d) shaded pole arrangement
Ans:-A
4. Low voltage starting of induction motors is prescribed because
(a) high starting current at full voltage would damage the windings
(b) it facilitates smooth acceleration.
(c) it increases the life of the motor.
(d) it is mandated by electric supply authorities to prevent voltage dips at other consumer premises.
Ans:-A
5. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon the
(a) applied voltage
(b) frequency
(c) load current
(d) mutual flux
Ans:-C
6. The voltage regulation of a large transformer is mainly influenced by
(a) no-load current and load power factor
(b) winding resistances and load power factor
(c) leakage fluxes and load power factor
(d) winding resistances and core loss
Ans:-C
7. The following lists relate to speed control of dc motors. Match List I with List II, and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A. Armature voltage control
B. Field current control
C. Use of diverter resistance
D. Rheostatic control
List II
1. Speeds above base speed
2. Speeds below base speed
3. Poor motor efficiency
4. Speed control of series motor
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-B
8. In a line printer used to print the output of a computer, the paper is required to be advanced by line spacing as soon as printing of the line is over. Which one of the following motors is best suited for this application?
(a) DC motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Stepper motor
Ans:-D
9. While plugging a 3-phase Induction motor, one supply terminal gets disconnected, then the motor will
(a) Continue to run in the same direction
(b) stop
(c) start rotating in the opposite direction at the same speed
(d) start rotating in the opposite direction at reduced speed
Ans:-A
10. The inductance of a three-phase transmission line is 1.2 mH /phase/km. If the spacing of conductors and the radius of the conductor are doubled, then the Inductance of Ike line will be
(a) 4.8 mH /phase/km
(b) 1.2 mH /phase/km
(c) (In 2) x 1.2 mH /phase/km
(d) (In 4) x 1.2 mH /phase/km
Ans:-B
11. A three-phase transmission line of negligible resistance and capacitance has an inductive reactance of 100 ohms per phase. When the sending-end and receiving-end voltages are maintained at 110 kV, the maximum power that can be transmitted will be
(a) 121MW
(b) 121/3 MW
(c) 363 MW
(d) 363 kW
Ans:-A
12. The surge impedance of a 100 km long underground cable is 50 ohms. The surge impedance of a 40 km long similar cable would be
(a) 20 ohms
(b) 50 ohms
(c) 80 ohms
(d) 125 ohms
Ans:-B
13. A string insulator has 4 units. The voltage across the bottom-most unit is 33.33% of the total voltage. Its string efficiency is
(a) 25%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 66.67%
(d) 75%
Ans:-D
14. The design of insulation for systems above 400 kV, is based upon
(a) lightning over voltage
(b) switching surges
(c) system voltage level
(d) system load level
Ans:-B
15. Bundled conductors in EHV transmission systems provide
(a) increased line reactance
(b) reduced line capacitance
(c) reduced voltage gradient
(d) increased corona loss
Ans:-C
16. A power system is subjected to a fault which makes the zero sequence component of current equal to zero. The nature of fault is
(a) double line to ground fault
(b) double line fault
(c) line of ground fault
(d) three-phase to ground fault
Ans:-B
17. For which of the following reasons is a differential relay biased to avoid maloperation when used for transformer protection?
(a) Saturation of CT’s
(b) Mismatch to CT ratios
(c) Difference in connection of both sides
(d) Current setting multiplier
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 4
(b) l and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:-D
18. Protection scheme used for detection of loss of excitation of a very large generating unit feeding power into a grid employs
(a) under voltage relay
(b) offset mho relay
(c) under frequency relay
(d) percentage differential relay
Ans:-B
19. Which one of the following is not true regarding HVDC transmission?
(a) Corona loss is much more in HVDC transmission.
(b) The power transmission capability of bipolar line is almost the same as that of signal circuit ac line
(c) HVDC link can operate between two ac systems whose frequencies need not be equal
(d) There is no distance limitation for HVDC transmission by underground cable
Ans:-A
Directions: The following items consist of two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R is individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
20. Assertion (A) : In three-phase star connected network, the neutral point can assume any potential upto phase voltage.
Reason (R) : The three-phase voltage system is unbalanced. The three voltages are not equal in magnitude but they are displaced by 1200.
Ans:-A
21. Assertion (A) : In a balanced three-phase star connected system, the line voltage is equal to 1.732 times the phase voltage.
Reason (R) : The line voltage is the vector sum of the two phase voltages.
Ans:-C
22. Assertion (A): Linearity is essential for the servo amplifiers.
Reason (R) : The servo amplifiers are used to amplify’ the output of the null detector.
Ans:-B
23. Assertion (A): The sampling period of a sampled data system must be ≤ 0.5 s to have a bandwidth ≤ 6.28 rad/s.
Reason (R): The signal is fully preserved in the sampled version so long as the sampling frequency is at least twice the maximum frequency contained in the signal.
Ans:-A
24. Assertion (A): For High-Q coils, inductance measurement is better done with Hay’s Bridge rather than with Maxwell’s Bridge.
Reason (R): Hay’s Bridge uses the standard capacitor in series with a variable resistor while Maxwell’s Bridge uses it in parallel.
Ans:-A
25. Assertion (A): Self-biasing method of biasing is generally used for a CE amplifier. Reason (R): The design of self-biasing circuit is very easy as compared to other biasing circuits.
Ans:-A
26. Assertion (A): In analog computation only summing amplifiers and integrators are used.
Reason (R): The differentiators using operational amplifiers cannot be designed.
Ans:-A
27. Assertion (A): In a salient pole 3-phase alternator, direct axis synchronous reactance is more than the quadrature axis synchronous reactance.
Reason (R): The length of air-gap along the direct axis of the salient pole 3-phase alternator is less than that along quadrature axis.
Ans:-A
28. Assertion (A): Adaptive delta modulation circuit has less distortion.
Reason (R): Quantisation noise is reduced.
Ans:-A
29. Assertion (A): A phase controlled line commutated converter can be operated both as rectifier and invertors.
Reason (R): S.C.R.’s have the property of blocking positive as well as negative voltages and they can be made conducting whenever required during the positive half cycle.
Ans:-C
30. Assertion (A) : In the nominal — π model of an overhead transmission line, the value of the sending-end voltage obtained for the normal rated load at the receiving-end at rated voltage, is higher than the actual value.
Reason (R): The nominal — π method underemphasize the effect of line capacitance giving a higher value of the sending-end voltage than the actual.
Ans:-C
Electrical Engineering objective questions MCQ
Electrical Engineering Solved Sample Questions
1. A single-phase induction on motor with only the main winding excited would produce zero torque at
(a) synchronous speed only
(b) starting and synchronous speed
(c) starting only
(d) starting and a speed slightly below synchronous speed
Ans:-B
2. A polyphase slip-ring induction machine has the stator and rotor windings wound for
(a) the same number of phase 6ut different number of pairs of poles
(b) the same number of pairs of poles but different number of phases
(c) the same number of phases with number of pairs of poles either equal or different
(d) the same number of pairs of poles with number of phases either equal or different
Ans:-D
3. The single-phase Induction motor is started with
(a) capacitance connection
(b) inductance connection
(c) resistance connection
(d) shaded pole arrangement
Ans:-A
4. Low voltage starting of induction motors is prescribed because
(a) high starting current at full voltage would damage the windings
(b) it facilitates smooth acceleration.
(c) it increases the life of the motor.
(d) it is mandated by electric supply authorities to prevent voltage dips at other consumer premises.
Ans:-A
5. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon the
(a) applied voltage
(b) frequency
(c) load current
(d) mutual flux
Ans:-C
6. The voltage regulation of a large transformer is mainly influenced by
(a) no-load current and load power factor
(b) winding resistances and load power factor
(c) leakage fluxes and load power factor
(d) winding resistances and core loss
Ans:-C
7. The following lists relate to speed control of dc motors. Match List I with List II, and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A. Armature voltage control
B. Field current control
C. Use of diverter resistance
D. Rheostatic control
List II
1. Speeds above base speed
2. Speeds below base speed
3. Poor motor efficiency
4. Speed control of series motor
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-B
8. In a line printer used to print the output of a computer, the paper is required to be advanced by line spacing as soon as printing of the line is over. Which one of the following motors is best suited for this application?
(a) DC motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Stepper motor
Ans:-D
9. While plugging a 3-phase Induction motor, one supply terminal gets disconnected, then the motor will
(a) Continue to run in the same direction
(b) stop
(c) start rotating in the opposite direction at the same speed
(d) start rotating in the opposite direction at reduced speed
Ans:-A
10. The inductance of a three-phase transmission line is 1.2 mH /phase/km. If the spacing of conductors and the radius of the conductor are doubled, then the Inductance of Ike line will be
(a) 4.8 mH /phase/km
(b) 1.2 mH /phase/km
(c) (In 2) x 1.2 mH /phase/km
(d) (In 4) x 1.2 mH /phase/km
Ans:-B
11. A three-phase transmission line of negligible resistance and capacitance has an inductive reactance of 100 ohms per phase. When the sending-end and receiving-end voltages are maintained at 110 kV, the maximum power that can be transmitted will be
(a) 121MW
(b) 121/3 MW
(c) 363 MW
(d) 363 kW
Ans:-A
12. The surge impedance of a 100 km long underground cable is 50 ohms. The surge impedance of a 40 km long similar cable would be
(a) 20 ohms
(b) 50 ohms
(c) 80 ohms
(d) 125 ohms
Ans:-B
13. A string insulator has 4 units. The voltage across the bottom-most unit is 33.33% of the total voltage. Its string efficiency is
(a) 25%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 66.67%
(d) 75%
Ans:-D
14. The design of insulation for systems above 400 kV, is based upon
(a) lightning over voltage
(b) switching surges
(c) system voltage level
(d) system load level
Ans:-B
15. Bundled conductors in EHV transmission systems provide
(a) increased line reactance
(b) reduced line capacitance
(c) reduced voltage gradient
(d) increased corona loss
Ans:-C
16. A power system is subjected to a fault which makes the zero sequence component of current equal to zero. The nature of fault is
(a) double line to ground fault
(b) double line fault
(c) line of ground fault
(d) three-phase to ground fault
Ans:-B
17. For which of the following reasons is a differential relay biased to avoid maloperation when used for transformer protection?
(a) Saturation of CT’s
(b) Mismatch to CT ratios
(c) Difference in connection of both sides
(d) Current setting multiplier
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) l and 4
(b) l and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:-D
18. Protection scheme used for detection of loss of excitation of a very large generating unit feeding power into a grid employs
(a) under voltage relay
(b) offset mho relay
(c) under frequency relay
(d) percentage differential relay
Ans:-B
19. Which one of the following is not true regarding HVDC transmission?
(a) Corona loss is much more in HVDC transmission.
(b) The power transmission capability of bipolar line is almost the same as that of signal circuit ac line
(c) HVDC link can operate between two ac systems whose frequencies need not be equal
(d) There is no distance limitation for HVDC transmission by underground cable
Ans:-A
Directions: The following items consist of two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R is individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
20. Assertion (A) : In three-phase star connected network, the neutral point can assume any potential upto phase voltage.
Reason (R) : The three-phase voltage system is unbalanced. The three voltages are not equal in magnitude but they are displaced by 1200.
Ans:-A
21. Assertion (A) : In a balanced three-phase star connected system, the line voltage is equal to 1.732 times the phase voltage.
Reason (R) : The line voltage is the vector sum of the two phase voltages.
Ans:-C
22. Assertion (A): Linearity is essential for the servo amplifiers.
Reason (R) : The servo amplifiers are used to amplify’ the output of the null detector.
Ans:-B
23. Assertion (A): The sampling period of a sampled data system must be ≤ 0.5 s to have a bandwidth ≤ 6.28 rad/s.
Reason (R): The signal is fully preserved in the sampled version so long as the sampling frequency is at least twice the maximum frequency contained in the signal.
Ans:-A
24. Assertion (A): For High-Q coils, inductance measurement is better done with Hay’s Bridge rather than with Maxwell’s Bridge.
Reason (R): Hay’s Bridge uses the standard capacitor in series with a variable resistor while Maxwell’s Bridge uses it in parallel.
Ans:-A
25. Assertion (A): Self-biasing method of biasing is generally used for a CE amplifier. Reason (R): The design of self-biasing circuit is very easy as compared to other biasing circuits.
Ans:-A
26. Assertion (A): In analog computation only summing amplifiers and integrators are used.
Reason (R): The differentiators using operational amplifiers cannot be designed.
Ans:-A
27. Assertion (A): In a salient pole 3-phase alternator, direct axis synchronous reactance is more than the quadrature axis synchronous reactance.
Reason (R): The length of air-gap along the direct axis of the salient pole 3-phase alternator is less than that along quadrature axis.
Ans:-A
28. Assertion (A): Adaptive delta modulation circuit has less distortion.
Reason (R): Quantisation noise is reduced.
Ans:-A
29. Assertion (A): A phase controlled line commutated converter can be operated both as rectifier and invertors.
Reason (R): S.C.R.’s have the property of blocking positive as well as negative voltages and they can be made conducting whenever required during the positive half cycle.
Ans:-C
30. Assertion (A) : In the nominal — π model of an overhead transmission line, the value of the sending-end voltage obtained for the normal rated load at the receiving-end at rated voltage, is higher than the actual value.
Reason (R): The nominal — π method underemphasize the effect of line capacitance giving a higher value of the sending-end voltage than the actual.
Ans:-C
Monday, July 25, 2011
Psychology objective questions and answers
Psychology objective questions and answers
psychology objective questions and answers Solved Model test
Multiple Choice Test, Multiple Choice Psychology
1. At its most basic level verbal learning may be considered as:
(A) The process of concept formation
(B) The process of forming verbal associations
(C) The process of rule learning
(D) The process of skill learning
Ans. (B)
2. Although I. Q’s are relatively stable for most people, I. Q. may show large shifts because of—
(A) Environmental conditions
(B) Emotional factors
(C) Motivational factors
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
3. The group factor theory of intelligence was proposed by—
(A) Kelley
(B) Brown
(C) Thorndike
(D) Spearman
Ans. (A)
4. We forget and then forget what we forgot is:
(A) Repression
(B) Excessive repression
(C) Motivated forgetting
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
5. Which kind of test WAIS-R and WISC-R are?
(A) Non-verbal
(B) Verbal performance
(C) Verbal
(D) Performance
Ans. (B)
6. Learning involving a change in the way information is processed as a result of experience that an organism has had, and which has not been rewarded explicitly is
(A) Foresight learning
(B) Instrumental learning
(C) Cognitive learning
(D) Motivated learning
Ans. (C)
7. With age, the following shows little decline—
(A) Speed of intellectual functioning
(B) Short term memory
(C) General knowledge
(D) Efficiency of intellectual functioning
Ans. (C)
8. The phenomenon of a tune ‘running in the head’ is called:
(A) Involuntary recall
(B) Reinforcement
(C) Reinstatement
(D) Perseveration
Ans. (D)
9. Which theory of forgetting stresses that what is stored is determined by what is perceived and how it is encoded; and what is stored determines what retrieval cues are effective in providing access to what is stored?
(A)Interference theory of forgetting
(B) Motivation theory of forgetting
(C) Two factor theory of forgetting
(D) Tulving and Thomson theory of forgetting
Ans. (D)
10. Who said, “Intelligence is like electricity which is easy to be measured but difficult to be defined”?
(A) Spearman
(B) Vernon
(C) Jenson
(D) Burt
Ans. (C)
11. Creativity correlates mostly with:
(A) Inductive and deductive thinking
(B) Deductive thinking
(C) Inductive and evaluative thinking
(D) Inductive, deductive and evaluative thinking
Ans. (C)
12. A general relation-perceiving capacity which represents one’s potential intelligence somewhat independent of socialization an education is termed by Catell as—
(A) Crystallized intelligence
(B) Fluctuating intelligence
(C) Fluid intelligence
(D) The general intelligence factor
Ans. (C)
13. Thinking is carried on by:
(A) Imperceptible muscular movements
(B) Mental images representing a variety of symbols
(C) Both of these processes
(D) Neither of these processes
Ans. (C)
14. Stress is experienced when:
(A) Internal homeostatic balance is disrupted
(B) There is injury or threat of injury
(C) There is frustration
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
15. The contractions of muscles in the stomach do not:
(A) Activate cells in lateral hypothalamus
(B) Influence hypothalamic control of immediate appetite
(C) Results in hunger pangs
(D) Activate thermo receptors in the brain
Ans. (D)
16. An artist must have high—
(A) Abstract intelligence
(B) Social intelligence
(C) Concrete intelligence
(D) Crystallized intelligence
Ans. (A)
17. The social learning theory stresses on the importance of:
(A) Models
(B) Self-regulatory processes
(C) Cognitive processes
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
18. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) Those with low intelligence reach their upper limit of mental growth quite late and those with high intelligence reach their at a relatively early age.
(B) Mental growth is continuous even beyond the time of physical maturity.
(C) The I. Q’s of very bright children invariably develops with age.
(D) I. Q. usually changes very little with age, if at all.
Ans. (A)
19. “Stop smoking or get lung cancer” is an example of:
(A) Approach-avoidance conflict
(B) Approach-approach conflict
(C) Avoidance-avoidance conflict
(D) Double approach-avoidance conflict
Ans. (C)
20. Look at on these primary mental abilities—
(a) Verbal comprehension
(b) Reasoning
(c) Word fluency
(d) Perceptual speed
The correct sequence is—
(A) c, b, a, d
(B) d, c, a, b
(C) b, a, d, c
(D) d, b, a, c
Ans. (D)
21. In behavioristic school, thinking is explained as
(A) Sub-vocal speech
(B) A conditioned reflex
(C) An unconscious activity
(D) Symbolism
Ans. (A)
22. Thurstone’s Primary Mental abilities Tests (PMA) are based on the following theory of intelligence?
(A) Group factor theory
(B) G-factor theory
(C) Structure of intellect model
(D) The concept of crystallized intelligence
Ans. (A)
23. The first tests designed to measure intelligence were developed by:
(A) Alfred Binet
(B) Theodore Simon
(C) Francis Galton
(D) Louis Thurstone
Ans. (C)
24. The power to perform an act, physical or mental, either before or after training is called
(A) Trait
(B) Aptitude
(C) Attitude
(D) Ability
Ans. (D)
25. Which of the following is most correct?
(A) Creative ability and intelligence are entirely different from one another.
(B) Creativity and intelligence are one and the same thing.
(C) Creativity and intelligence are neither entirely independent nor-closely related together
(D) Creativity and intelligence are highly correlated with each other.
Ans. (C)
26. Which of the following statement is correct with regards to imprinting?
(A) Ducklings will follow the first moving object they see and thereafter show preference for this object and others like it
(B) Ducklings will follow the mother when they see it since they instinctively know they are safe in doing so
(C) Ducklings do not follow the first moving object when they see it since they tend to be very cautious
(D) Ducklings can be imprinted only to the members of their own species
Ans. (A)
27. Which of the following statements is WRONG? According to Cattell
(A) Fluid intelligence inc1uds the flexibility to organize and reorganize concepts
(B) Fluid intelligence peeks early and begins to decline shortly after age 20
(C) Fluid intelligence includes scholastic ability and is determined by the culture
(D) Crystallized intelligence may continue to increase for many years after the end of formal schooling
Ans. (C)
28. Thurstone’s primary abilities—
(A) Are completely independent
(B) Have significant interrelation
(C) Do not give support to special ideals of a general intelligence factor
(D) Are insignificantly inter-correlated
Ans. (B)
29. A person is sometimes extremely boastful and sometimes self-effacing; sometimes sociable and sometimes seclusive. He belongs to the personality type:
(A) Ambivert
(B) Introvert
(C) Extrovert
(D) Mesomorph
Ans. (A)
30. Which of the following is not an aptitude test?
(A) DABT
(B) GABT
(C) EPPS
(D) FACT
Ans. (C)
31. The central theme of Roger’s personality theory is
(A) Self
(B) Ego
(C) Experience
(D) External reality
Ans. (A)
32. When the content of the responses is ignored, but the pattern of a person’s responses are matched with the patterns of answers given by groups of people with known characteristics, we get a test that has
(A) Content validity
(B) Empirical validity
(C) Face validity
(D) Construct validity
Ans. (B)
33. Consider these factors—
(a) Medical problems
(b) Cultural deprivation
(c) Family inheritance
Which one is related with mental deficiency?
(A) a and c
(B) a, b and c
(C) b and c
(D) only c
Ans. (A)
34. In an experiment, if the independent variable is a new way of teaching children to read, it would he most appropriate to use
(A) The control group method
(B) The A-B-A within subject experimental design
(C) No control group
(D) Both (A) and (B) are equally appropriate
Ans. (A)
35. A psychologist is experimenting on how the reaction time is affected by the lack of sleep. The reaction time in this experiment is the:
(A) Control variable
(B) Intervening variable
(C) Dependent variable
(D) Independent variable
Ans. (C)
36. Which of the following statements is correct about the negative and positive correlations f the same size?
(A) The positive correlation indicates a higher degree of relationship than he negative correlation of the same size
(B) The negative and positive correlations of the same size represent the same degree of relationship
(C) The negative correlation indicates no relationship whereas the positive correlation indicates a relationship
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct
Ans. (B)
37. Consider statement and their reason and reply on codes—
Statement: An Intelligence Quotient of 40 year person is similar to a man of 20 years.
Reason: In beginning intelligence of 40 year person was slow.
Codes—
(A) Statement is right but reason not
(B) Reason is right but statement not
(C) Statement and reason both are right
(D) Statement and reason both are wrong
Ans. (A)
38. The Thematic Apperception Test is based on:
(A) Maslow’s theory of needs
(B) Roger’s self-concept
(C) Freud’s psychoanalysis
(D) Murray’s theory of needs
Ans. (D)
39. Heritability ratio (H) means—
(A) Ratio between I.Q.s and P. Q. obtained on tests of intelligence.
(B) Ratio between I.Q.s of identical twins and fraternal twins.
(C) Ratio between I.Q.s of siblings.
(D) Ratio between genetic variability of intelligence scores and total variability of intelligence scores
Ans. (D)
40. By giving tests in two different but equivalent forms, one can ascertain the:
(A) Reliability
(B) Validity
(C) Predictive validity
(D) Utility
Ans. (A)
41. Which of the following scales is not a scale of good enough Harris Drawing Test?
(A) Child-scale
(B) Female-scale
(C) Male scale
(D) Self-scale
Ans. (A)
42. Match list I (Theories of intelligence) with list II (Psychologists) reply on codes—
List I
(a) Spearman
(b) Gardner
(c) Thorndike
(d) Thustrone
List II
1. Group factor theory
2. Two factor theory
3. Theory of multiple intelligence
4. Multifactor theory
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 4
Ans. (D)
43. According to Binet, intelligence means the characteristics of an individual’s thought processes that enable him
(A) To take and maintain a direction without being distracted
(B) To adapt means to end
(C) To criticize his own attempts at problem solving
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
44. Psychologists prefer experimental method because:
(A) Quantitative resu1t can be obtained
(B) Precision instruments can be used for accurate observations
(C) It permits the exercise of rigorous controls
(D) Permanent records of behavior can he maintained
Ans. (C)
45. Guilford’s structure of intellect model suggests—
(A) Lumping together of items to form tests
(B) 120 unique intelligence factors
(C) 7 primary abilities
(D) The general intelligence factors
Ans. (B)
46. According to Catell, the crystallized intelligence—
(A) Reflects one’s cultural exposure
(B) Reflects one’s formal education
(C) Is innate
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true
Ans. (D)
47. Highly creative persons tend frequently to be—
(A) Low on scores in intelligence tests
(B) Moderately intelligent
(C) Of average intelligence
(D) Highly intelligent
Ans. (D)
48. Who was the first to organize relatively large- scale systematic experiments to detect inter individual differences in the sphere of intelligence?
(A) Francis Galton
(B) Louis Thurstone
(C) Binet
(D) Simon
Ans. (A)
49. Assume that a subject is given a long list of correlated words to study and is asked to recall the word at a later time. Then, according to Guilford’s structure of intellect model, the content of this test is—
(A) Semantic
(B) Figural
(C) Symbolic
(D) Behavioral
Ans. (A)
50. Reaction time related with intelligence. This thought connects with—
(A) Jensen
(B) Eysenck
(C) Stenberg
(D) Cattell
Ans. (C)
psychology objective questions and answers Solved Model test
Multiple Choice Test, Multiple Choice Psychology
1. At its most basic level verbal learning may be considered as:
(A) The process of concept formation
(B) The process of forming verbal associations
(C) The process of rule learning
(D) The process of skill learning
Ans. (B)
2. Although I. Q’s are relatively stable for most people, I. Q. may show large shifts because of—
(A) Environmental conditions
(B) Emotional factors
(C) Motivational factors
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
3. The group factor theory of intelligence was proposed by—
(A) Kelley
(B) Brown
(C) Thorndike
(D) Spearman
Ans. (A)
4. We forget and then forget what we forgot is:
(A) Repression
(B) Excessive repression
(C) Motivated forgetting
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
5. Which kind of test WAIS-R and WISC-R are?
(A) Non-verbal
(B) Verbal performance
(C) Verbal
(D) Performance
Ans. (B)
6. Learning involving a change in the way information is processed as a result of experience that an organism has had, and which has not been rewarded explicitly is
(A) Foresight learning
(B) Instrumental learning
(C) Cognitive learning
(D) Motivated learning
Ans. (C)
7. With age, the following shows little decline—
(A) Speed of intellectual functioning
(B) Short term memory
(C) General knowledge
(D) Efficiency of intellectual functioning
Ans. (C)
8. The phenomenon of a tune ‘running in the head’ is called:
(A) Involuntary recall
(B) Reinforcement
(C) Reinstatement
(D) Perseveration
Ans. (D)
9. Which theory of forgetting stresses that what is stored is determined by what is perceived and how it is encoded; and what is stored determines what retrieval cues are effective in providing access to what is stored?
(A)Interference theory of forgetting
(B) Motivation theory of forgetting
(C) Two factor theory of forgetting
(D) Tulving and Thomson theory of forgetting
Ans. (D)
10. Who said, “Intelligence is like electricity which is easy to be measured but difficult to be defined”?
(A) Spearman
(B) Vernon
(C) Jenson
(D) Burt
Ans. (C)
11. Creativity correlates mostly with:
(A) Inductive and deductive thinking
(B) Deductive thinking
(C) Inductive and evaluative thinking
(D) Inductive, deductive and evaluative thinking
Ans. (C)
12. A general relation-perceiving capacity which represents one’s potential intelligence somewhat independent of socialization an education is termed by Catell as—
(A) Crystallized intelligence
(B) Fluctuating intelligence
(C) Fluid intelligence
(D) The general intelligence factor
Ans. (C)
13. Thinking is carried on by:
(A) Imperceptible muscular movements
(B) Mental images representing a variety of symbols
(C) Both of these processes
(D) Neither of these processes
Ans. (C)
14. Stress is experienced when:
(A) Internal homeostatic balance is disrupted
(B) There is injury or threat of injury
(C) There is frustration
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
15. The contractions of muscles in the stomach do not:
(A) Activate cells in lateral hypothalamus
(B) Influence hypothalamic control of immediate appetite
(C) Results in hunger pangs
(D) Activate thermo receptors in the brain
Ans. (D)
16. An artist must have high—
(A) Abstract intelligence
(B) Social intelligence
(C) Concrete intelligence
(D) Crystallized intelligence
Ans. (A)
17. The social learning theory stresses on the importance of:
(A) Models
(B) Self-regulatory processes
(C) Cognitive processes
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
18. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) Those with low intelligence reach their upper limit of mental growth quite late and those with high intelligence reach their at a relatively early age.
(B) Mental growth is continuous even beyond the time of physical maturity.
(C) The I. Q’s of very bright children invariably develops with age.
(D) I. Q. usually changes very little with age, if at all.
Ans. (A)
19. “Stop smoking or get lung cancer” is an example of:
(A) Approach-avoidance conflict
(B) Approach-approach conflict
(C) Avoidance-avoidance conflict
(D) Double approach-avoidance conflict
Ans. (C)
20. Look at on these primary mental abilities—
(a) Verbal comprehension
(b) Reasoning
(c) Word fluency
(d) Perceptual speed
The correct sequence is—
(A) c, b, a, d
(B) d, c, a, b
(C) b, a, d, c
(D) d, b, a, c
Ans. (D)
21. In behavioristic school, thinking is explained as
(A) Sub-vocal speech
(B) A conditioned reflex
(C) An unconscious activity
(D) Symbolism
Ans. (A)
22. Thurstone’s Primary Mental abilities Tests (PMA) are based on the following theory of intelligence?
(A) Group factor theory
(B) G-factor theory
(C) Structure of intellect model
(D) The concept of crystallized intelligence
Ans. (A)
23. The first tests designed to measure intelligence were developed by:
(A) Alfred Binet
(B) Theodore Simon
(C) Francis Galton
(D) Louis Thurstone
Ans. (C)
24. The power to perform an act, physical or mental, either before or after training is called
(A) Trait
(B) Aptitude
(C) Attitude
(D) Ability
Ans. (D)
25. Which of the following is most correct?
(A) Creative ability and intelligence are entirely different from one another.
(B) Creativity and intelligence are one and the same thing.
(C) Creativity and intelligence are neither entirely independent nor-closely related together
(D) Creativity and intelligence are highly correlated with each other.
Ans. (C)
26. Which of the following statement is correct with regards to imprinting?
(A) Ducklings will follow the first moving object they see and thereafter show preference for this object and others like it
(B) Ducklings will follow the mother when they see it since they instinctively know they are safe in doing so
(C) Ducklings do not follow the first moving object when they see it since they tend to be very cautious
(D) Ducklings can be imprinted only to the members of their own species
Ans. (A)
27. Which of the following statements is WRONG? According to Cattell
(A) Fluid intelligence inc1uds the flexibility to organize and reorganize concepts
(B) Fluid intelligence peeks early and begins to decline shortly after age 20
(C) Fluid intelligence includes scholastic ability and is determined by the culture
(D) Crystallized intelligence may continue to increase for many years after the end of formal schooling
Ans. (C)
28. Thurstone’s primary abilities—
(A) Are completely independent
(B) Have significant interrelation
(C) Do not give support to special ideals of a general intelligence factor
(D) Are insignificantly inter-correlated
Ans. (B)
29. A person is sometimes extremely boastful and sometimes self-effacing; sometimes sociable and sometimes seclusive. He belongs to the personality type:
(A) Ambivert
(B) Introvert
(C) Extrovert
(D) Mesomorph
Ans. (A)
30. Which of the following is not an aptitude test?
(A) DABT
(B) GABT
(C) EPPS
(D) FACT
Ans. (C)
31. The central theme of Roger’s personality theory is
(A) Self
(B) Ego
(C) Experience
(D) External reality
Ans. (A)
32. When the content of the responses is ignored, but the pattern of a person’s responses are matched with the patterns of answers given by groups of people with known characteristics, we get a test that has
(A) Content validity
(B) Empirical validity
(C) Face validity
(D) Construct validity
Ans. (B)
33. Consider these factors—
(a) Medical problems
(b) Cultural deprivation
(c) Family inheritance
Which one is related with mental deficiency?
(A) a and c
(B) a, b and c
(C) b and c
(D) only c
Ans. (A)
34. In an experiment, if the independent variable is a new way of teaching children to read, it would he most appropriate to use
(A) The control group method
(B) The A-B-A within subject experimental design
(C) No control group
(D) Both (A) and (B) are equally appropriate
Ans. (A)
35. A psychologist is experimenting on how the reaction time is affected by the lack of sleep. The reaction time in this experiment is the:
(A) Control variable
(B) Intervening variable
(C) Dependent variable
(D) Independent variable
Ans. (C)
36. Which of the following statements is correct about the negative and positive correlations f the same size?
(A) The positive correlation indicates a higher degree of relationship than he negative correlation of the same size
(B) The negative and positive correlations of the same size represent the same degree of relationship
(C) The negative correlation indicates no relationship whereas the positive correlation indicates a relationship
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct
Ans. (B)
37. Consider statement and their reason and reply on codes—
Statement: An Intelligence Quotient of 40 year person is similar to a man of 20 years.
Reason: In beginning intelligence of 40 year person was slow.
Codes—
(A) Statement is right but reason not
(B) Reason is right but statement not
(C) Statement and reason both are right
(D) Statement and reason both are wrong
Ans. (A)
38. The Thematic Apperception Test is based on:
(A) Maslow’s theory of needs
(B) Roger’s self-concept
(C) Freud’s psychoanalysis
(D) Murray’s theory of needs
Ans. (D)
39. Heritability ratio (H) means—
(A) Ratio between I.Q.s and P. Q. obtained on tests of intelligence.
(B) Ratio between I.Q.s of identical twins and fraternal twins.
(C) Ratio between I.Q.s of siblings.
(D) Ratio between genetic variability of intelligence scores and total variability of intelligence scores
Ans. (D)
40. By giving tests in two different but equivalent forms, one can ascertain the:
(A) Reliability
(B) Validity
(C) Predictive validity
(D) Utility
Ans. (A)
41. Which of the following scales is not a scale of good enough Harris Drawing Test?
(A) Child-scale
(B) Female-scale
(C) Male scale
(D) Self-scale
Ans. (A)
42. Match list I (Theories of intelligence) with list II (Psychologists) reply on codes—
List I
(a) Spearman
(b) Gardner
(c) Thorndike
(d) Thustrone
List II
1. Group factor theory
2. Two factor theory
3. Theory of multiple intelligence
4. Multifactor theory
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 4
Ans. (D)
43. According to Binet, intelligence means the characteristics of an individual’s thought processes that enable him
(A) To take and maintain a direction without being distracted
(B) To adapt means to end
(C) To criticize his own attempts at problem solving
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
44. Psychologists prefer experimental method because:
(A) Quantitative resu1t can be obtained
(B) Precision instruments can be used for accurate observations
(C) It permits the exercise of rigorous controls
(D) Permanent records of behavior can he maintained
Ans. (C)
45. Guilford’s structure of intellect model suggests—
(A) Lumping together of items to form tests
(B) 120 unique intelligence factors
(C) 7 primary abilities
(D) The general intelligence factors
Ans. (B)
46. According to Catell, the crystallized intelligence—
(A) Reflects one’s cultural exposure
(B) Reflects one’s formal education
(C) Is innate
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true
Ans. (D)
47. Highly creative persons tend frequently to be—
(A) Low on scores in intelligence tests
(B) Moderately intelligent
(C) Of average intelligence
(D) Highly intelligent
Ans. (D)
48. Who was the first to organize relatively large- scale systematic experiments to detect inter individual differences in the sphere of intelligence?
(A) Francis Galton
(B) Louis Thurstone
(C) Binet
(D) Simon
Ans. (A)
49. Assume that a subject is given a long list of correlated words to study and is asked to recall the word at a later time. Then, according to Guilford’s structure of intellect model, the content of this test is—
(A) Semantic
(B) Figural
(C) Symbolic
(D) Behavioral
Ans. (A)
50. Reaction time related with intelligence. This thought connects with—
(A) Jensen
(B) Eysenck
(C) Stenberg
(D) Cattell
Ans. (C)
Friday, July 22, 2011
Objective physics Questions for UPSC
Objective physics Questions for UPSC
UPSC Exam material Physics objective questions and answers
Free online Physics practice tests: Solved UPSC Physics Question
1. The flowing water of a river possesses energy.
(a) Gravitational
(b) Potential
(c) Electrical
(d) infinite
Ans. (d)
2. The R.D. of a metal b1ock is 2.7 x 103 kg/m3.It is immersed in water. State the situation.
(a) Sinks
(b) Floats
(c) Partially immersed
(d) No part immersed
Ans. (a)
3. The mass of an object P is double the mass of Q. If both move with the same
Velocity, then the ratio of K.E. of P to Q is
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
Ans. (b)
4. Pressure cannot be measured in
(a) Nm2
(b) Bar
(c) Pa
(d) kg wt
Ans. (d)
5. What is the momentum of a body of mass 100 g, having a K.E. of 20 J’?
(a) 2 kg ms-1
(b) 1/2kg ms-1
(c) 2 g cm s-1
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
6. Pascal is the unit for
(a) Pressure
(b) Thrust
(c) Buoyant force
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
7. 1 milibar is equal to
(a) 100 N m-2
(b) 100 N m-2
(c) 1 N m-2
(d) 1/100 N m2
Ans. (a)
8. A bird flying in the sky has
(a) K.E. only
(b) P.E. only
(c) Neither K.E. nor P.E.
(d) Both K.E. and P.E.
Ans. (d)
9. The mercury barometer was invented by
(a) Ce1sius
(b) Fahrenheit
(c) Torricelli
(d) Bernoulli
Ans. (c)
10. The atmospheric pressure at the surface of the earth is about
(a) 103 N m-2
(b) 105 N m-2
(c) 10-3 N m-2
(d) 10-5 N m-2
Ans. (b)
11. A total of 4900 joule was expended in lifting a 50 kg mass. The mass was raised
to a height of
(a) 98 m
(b) 960 m
(c) 245 m
(d) 10 m
Ans. (d)
12. The ratio of SI units to CGS units of density is
(a) 103
(c) 102
(b) 10-2
(d) 10-3
Ans. (d)
13. An object of mass 1 kg has a P.E. of 1 J relative to the ground when it is at a
Height of
(a) 0.102m
(b) 1 m
(c) 9.8m
(d) 32m
Ans. (a)
14. The density of water is
(a) 10 kg m-3
(b) 100-2 kg m-3
(c) 102 kg m-3
(d) 103 kg m-3
Ans. (d)
15. Water evaporates under atmospheric pressure. Without changing the temperature,
the same water is placed under partial vacuum. The rate of evaporation will
(a) Increase
(b) Drop to zero
(c) Decrease
(d) Remain unaffected
Ans. (a)
16. The SI unit for the coefficient of linear expansion is
(a) °C
(b) per°C
(c) cm2°C
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
17. The SI unit for the coefficient of linear expansion is
(a) °C
(b) per°C
(c) cm2/°C
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
18. A block of wood is floating on water at 0°C, with a certain volume V above
water level. The temperature of water is slowly raised from 0°C. How will
the volume V change with the rise of temperature?
(a) V will be unchanged
(b) V will decrease from 0°C
(c) V will decrease till 4°C and then increase
(d) V will increase till 4°C and then decrease
Ans. (d)
19. Coefficient of linear expansion always_________ with the increase in temperature.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) Doubles itself
Ans. (d)
20. Any solid will sink in water if its relative density is
(a) less than unity
(b) Equal to unity
(c) Greater than unity
(d) infinite
Ans. (c)
21. Choose the correct statement:
(a) α: β: γ:: 1:3:2
(b) α: β: γ:: 3:2:1
(c) α: β: γ:: 2:3:l
(d) α: β: γ:: 1:2:3
Ans. (d)
22. Any solid will not sink in water if its relative density is
(a) Less than 1
(b) Equal to 1
(c) Greater than 1
(d) infinite
Ans. (a)
23. A graph is plotted taking °C along the Y-axis and °F along the X-axis.
It is a/an
(a) parabola
(b) Straight line
(c) Ellipse
(d) Circle
Ans. (b)
24. Therm is the unit of
(a) heat
(b) temperature
(c) thermometry
(d) work
Ans. (a)
25. Absolute zero corresponds to
(a) -273 K
(b) 273°C
(c) 273°R
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
UPSC Exam material Physics objective questions and answers
Free online Physics practice tests: Solved UPSC Physics Question
1. The flowing water of a river possesses energy.
(a) Gravitational
(b) Potential
(c) Electrical
(d) infinite
Ans. (d)
2. The R.D. of a metal b1ock is 2.7 x 103 kg/m3.It is immersed in water. State the situation.
(a) Sinks
(b) Floats
(c) Partially immersed
(d) No part immersed
Ans. (a)
3. The mass of an object P is double the mass of Q. If both move with the same
Velocity, then the ratio of K.E. of P to Q is
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
Ans. (b)
4. Pressure cannot be measured in
(a) Nm2
(b) Bar
(c) Pa
(d) kg wt
Ans. (d)
5. What is the momentum of a body of mass 100 g, having a K.E. of 20 J’?
(a) 2 kg ms-1
(b) 1/2kg ms-1
(c) 2 g cm s-1
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
6. Pascal is the unit for
(a) Pressure
(b) Thrust
(c) Buoyant force
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
7. 1 milibar is equal to
(a) 100 N m-2
(b) 100 N m-2
(c) 1 N m-2
(d) 1/100 N m2
Ans. (a)
8. A bird flying in the sky has
(a) K.E. only
(b) P.E. only
(c) Neither K.E. nor P.E.
(d) Both K.E. and P.E.
Ans. (d)
9. The mercury barometer was invented by
(a) Ce1sius
(b) Fahrenheit
(c) Torricelli
(d) Bernoulli
Ans. (c)
10. The atmospheric pressure at the surface of the earth is about
(a) 103 N m-2
(b) 105 N m-2
(c) 10-3 N m-2
(d) 10-5 N m-2
Ans. (b)
11. A total of 4900 joule was expended in lifting a 50 kg mass. The mass was raised
to a height of
(a) 98 m
(b) 960 m
(c) 245 m
(d) 10 m
Ans. (d)
12. The ratio of SI units to CGS units of density is
(a) 103
(c) 102
(b) 10-2
(d) 10-3
Ans. (d)
13. An object of mass 1 kg has a P.E. of 1 J relative to the ground when it is at a
Height of
(a) 0.102m
(b) 1 m
(c) 9.8m
(d) 32m
Ans. (a)
14. The density of water is
(a) 10 kg m-3
(b) 100-2 kg m-3
(c) 102 kg m-3
(d) 103 kg m-3
Ans. (d)
15. Water evaporates under atmospheric pressure. Without changing the temperature,
the same water is placed under partial vacuum. The rate of evaporation will
(a) Increase
(b) Drop to zero
(c) Decrease
(d) Remain unaffected
Ans. (a)
16. The SI unit for the coefficient of linear expansion is
(a) °C
(b) per°C
(c) cm2°C
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
17. The SI unit for the coefficient of linear expansion is
(a) °C
(b) per°C
(c) cm2/°C
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
18. A block of wood is floating on water at 0°C, with a certain volume V above
water level. The temperature of water is slowly raised from 0°C. How will
the volume V change with the rise of temperature?
(a) V will be unchanged
(b) V will decrease from 0°C
(c) V will decrease till 4°C and then increase
(d) V will increase till 4°C and then decrease
Ans. (d)
19. Coefficient of linear expansion always_________ with the increase in temperature.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) Doubles itself
Ans. (d)
20. Any solid will sink in water if its relative density is
(a) less than unity
(b) Equal to unity
(c) Greater than unity
(d) infinite
Ans. (c)
21. Choose the correct statement:
(a) α: β: γ:: 1:3:2
(b) α: β: γ:: 3:2:1
(c) α: β: γ:: 2:3:l
(d) α: β: γ:: 1:2:3
Ans. (d)
22. Any solid will not sink in water if its relative density is
(a) Less than 1
(b) Equal to 1
(c) Greater than 1
(d) infinite
Ans. (a)
23. A graph is plotted taking °C along the Y-axis and °F along the X-axis.
It is a/an
(a) parabola
(b) Straight line
(c) Ellipse
(d) Circle
Ans. (b)
24. Therm is the unit of
(a) heat
(b) temperature
(c) thermometry
(d) work
Ans. (a)
25. Absolute zero corresponds to
(a) -273 K
(b) 273°C
(c) 273°R
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
Monday, July 11, 2011
Sample Objective test maths Area perimeter and menstruation
Sample Objective test maths Area perimeter and menstruation
Area and Perimeter objective solved questions
Test your ability to compute the area or perimeter
1. The length of a given rectangle is increased by 20% and the breadth is decreased by
20%, then the area
(a) remains the same
(b) increases by 5%.
(c) decreases by 5%
(d) decreases by 4%
Ans. (d)
2. A rectangle is 8 cm longer than its width. A square of side x cm has been cut out of it.
If x cm is half the width of the rectangle, then the remaining area is
(a) (2x2 + 8x) cm2
(b) (2x 2 + 16x) cm2
(c) (3x 2 + 8x) cm2
(d) (3x 2 + 16x) cm2
Ans. (d)
3. A rectangular garden has an area 2000 m2 and its length and breadth are in the ratio
5: 4. A road of uniform width runs inside the garden around the perimeter and has an
area 344 m2, then the width of the road is
(a) 4 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 2 m
Ans. (d)
4. A room is rectangular in shape and has a flat roof. It is 10 m wide, 13 m long and 5
m high. It is to be painted inside and outside and on the floor but not on the ceiling,
then the total area to be painted is
(a) 360 m2
(b) 460 m2
(c) 490 m2
(d) 590 m2
Ans. (d)
5. One side of a parallelogram is 8 cm. If the corresponding altitude is 6 cm, then its
area is given by
(a) 24 cm2
(b) 36 cm2
(c) 40 cm2
(d) 48 cm2
Ans. (d)
6. The base of a triangle is 15 dm and its height is 12 dm. The height of another triangle
of double the area and the base of which is 20 dm, is given by
(a) 9 dm
(b) 18 dm
(c) 8 dm
(d) 12.5 dm
Ans. (b)
7. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 24 dm and 10 dm, then the perimeter of the
rhombus will be
(a) 68 dm
(b) 60 dm
(c) 52 dm
(d) 50 dm
Ans. (c)
8. The perimeter of a rhombus is 100 cm and one of the diagonals is 40 cm. Then the
area of the rhombus is
(a) 1000 cm2
(b) 500 cm2
(c) 1200 cm2
(d) 600 cm2
Ans. (d)
9. If all possible diagonals from a vertex of an ‘n’ sided polygon be drawn, then the
number of triangles thus formed is
(a) n + 1
(b) n
(c) n – 1
(d) n – 2
Ans. (d)
10. The perimeter of one face of a cube is 20 m, then its volume is
(a) 800 m3
(b) 1000 m3
(c) 125 m3
(d) 400 m3
Ans. (c)
11. The outer length, breadth and height of a box open at the top are 10 dm, 8 dm and 5
dm respectively. If the thickness of the wood is 1 dm, then the total surface area of
the box is
(a) 420 dm2
(b) 452 dm2
(c) 451 dm 2
(d) 483 dm2
Ans. (a)
12. If ‘l’, ‘b’ and ‘h’ of a cuboid are increased, decreased and increased by 1%, 3% and
2% respectively, then the volume of the cuboid
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) increases or decreases depending on original dimensions
(d) can’t be calculated with given data
Ans. (b)
13. The radius of the base and the height of a right circular cylinder are each increased by
10%, then the volume of the cylinder is increased by
(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 42%
(4) 33.1%
Ans. (d)
14. The radius and height of a cone are each increased by 20%, then the volume of the
cone is increased by
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 60%
(d) 72.8%
Ans. (d)
15. If the volume in m3 and the surface area in m2 of a sphere are numerically equal, then
the radius of the sphere in m is
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3.5
(d) 3
Ans. (d)
16. In the case of cuboid, N0 denotes the number of vertices, N1 the number of edges,
and N2 the number of faces, then
(a) N0 + N1 = N2 + 2
(b) N0 + N2 = N1 + 2
(c) N1 + N2 = N0 + 2
(d) N1+ N2 = 2N0
Ans. (b)
17. If the length of every side of a triangle is increased by 50%, then the area of the
triangle will be increased by
(a) 50%
(b) 100%
(c) 125%
(d) 150%
Ans. (c)
18. A piece of wire 132 dm long is bent successively in the shape of an equilateral
triangle, a square, a regular hexagon and a circle. Then the area included is largest
when the shape is
(a) triangle
(b) square
(c) hexagon
(d) circle
Ans. (d)
19. Two cubes have volumes in the ratio 1 : 27, then the ratio of the area of the face of
one to that of the other is
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 6
(c) 1 : 9
(d) 1 : 18
Ans. (c)
20. The curved surface of a circular cylinder of height ‘h’ and the curved surface area of
the cone of slant height 2’h’ having the same circular base, are in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
Ans. (c)
Area and Perimeter objective solved questions
Test your ability to compute the area or perimeter
1. The length of a given rectangle is increased by 20% and the breadth is decreased by
20%, then the area
(a) remains the same
(b) increases by 5%.
(c) decreases by 5%
(d) decreases by 4%
Ans. (d)
2. A rectangle is 8 cm longer than its width. A square of side x cm has been cut out of it.
If x cm is half the width of the rectangle, then the remaining area is
(a) (2x2 + 8x) cm2
(b) (2x 2 + 16x) cm2
(c) (3x 2 + 8x) cm2
(d) (3x 2 + 16x) cm2
Ans. (d)
3. A rectangular garden has an area 2000 m2 and its length and breadth are in the ratio
5: 4. A road of uniform width runs inside the garden around the perimeter and has an
area 344 m2, then the width of the road is
(a) 4 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 2 m
Ans. (d)
4. A room is rectangular in shape and has a flat roof. It is 10 m wide, 13 m long and 5
m high. It is to be painted inside and outside and on the floor but not on the ceiling,
then the total area to be painted is
(a) 360 m2
(b) 460 m2
(c) 490 m2
(d) 590 m2
Ans. (d)
5. One side of a parallelogram is 8 cm. If the corresponding altitude is 6 cm, then its
area is given by
(a) 24 cm2
(b) 36 cm2
(c) 40 cm2
(d) 48 cm2
Ans. (d)
6. The base of a triangle is 15 dm and its height is 12 dm. The height of another triangle
of double the area and the base of which is 20 dm, is given by
(a) 9 dm
(b) 18 dm
(c) 8 dm
(d) 12.5 dm
Ans. (b)
7. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 24 dm and 10 dm, then the perimeter of the
rhombus will be
(a) 68 dm
(b) 60 dm
(c) 52 dm
(d) 50 dm
Ans. (c)
8. The perimeter of a rhombus is 100 cm and one of the diagonals is 40 cm. Then the
area of the rhombus is
(a) 1000 cm2
(b) 500 cm2
(c) 1200 cm2
(d) 600 cm2
Ans. (d)
9. If all possible diagonals from a vertex of an ‘n’ sided polygon be drawn, then the
number of triangles thus formed is
(a) n + 1
(b) n
(c) n – 1
(d) n – 2
Ans. (d)
10. The perimeter of one face of a cube is 20 m, then its volume is
(a) 800 m3
(b) 1000 m3
(c) 125 m3
(d) 400 m3
Ans. (c)
11. The outer length, breadth and height of a box open at the top are 10 dm, 8 dm and 5
dm respectively. If the thickness of the wood is 1 dm, then the total surface area of
the box is
(a) 420 dm2
(b) 452 dm2
(c) 451 dm 2
(d) 483 dm2
Ans. (a)
12. If ‘l’, ‘b’ and ‘h’ of a cuboid are increased, decreased and increased by 1%, 3% and
2% respectively, then the volume of the cuboid
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) increases or decreases depending on original dimensions
(d) can’t be calculated with given data
Ans. (b)
13. The radius of the base and the height of a right circular cylinder are each increased by
10%, then the volume of the cylinder is increased by
(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 42%
(4) 33.1%
Ans. (d)
14. The radius and height of a cone are each increased by 20%, then the volume of the
cone is increased by
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 60%
(d) 72.8%
Ans. (d)
15. If the volume in m3 and the surface area in m2 of a sphere are numerically equal, then
the radius of the sphere in m is
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3.5
(d) 3
Ans. (d)
16. In the case of cuboid, N0 denotes the number of vertices, N1 the number of edges,
and N2 the number of faces, then
(a) N0 + N1 = N2 + 2
(b) N0 + N2 = N1 + 2
(c) N1 + N2 = N0 + 2
(d) N1+ N2 = 2N0
Ans. (b)
17. If the length of every side of a triangle is increased by 50%, then the area of the
triangle will be increased by
(a) 50%
(b) 100%
(c) 125%
(d) 150%
Ans. (c)
18. A piece of wire 132 dm long is bent successively in the shape of an equilateral
triangle, a square, a regular hexagon and a circle. Then the area included is largest
when the shape is
(a) triangle
(b) square
(c) hexagon
(d) circle
Ans. (d)
19. Two cubes have volumes in the ratio 1 : 27, then the ratio of the area of the face of
one to that of the other is
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 6
(c) 1 : 9
(d) 1 : 18
Ans. (c)
20. The curved surface of a circular cylinder of height ‘h’ and the curved surface area of
the cone of slant height 2’h’ having the same circular base, are in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
Ans. (c)
Monday, July 4, 2011
India Business Quiz
India Business Quiz
Business Quiz Questions - India Business Quiz with Answers
india management business quiz
1. Which FMCG major had acquired Balsara for Rs. 143 crore in an all-cash deal?
1.HLL
2..Godrej
3. Dabur
4. None of these
Ans. (3)
2. Which is not brand from Godrej Group?
1. Ezee
2. Fair Glow
3. Harpic
4. Cinthol
Ans. (3)
3. PC maker company ‘Lenovo Group’, presently 8th largest in the world, and which is entering Indian market also, is a company from
1. China
2. Malaysia
3. Japan
4. South Korea
Ans. (1)
4. The ‘Neticket’ scheme, which allows a passenger to fly without ever visiting a reservation counter has been introduced by
1. Jet Airways
2. Sahara Air
3. Indian Airlines
4. None of these
Ans. (3)
5. S.S. Kohli is/was associated with
1. Indian Bank
2. Punjab National Bank
3. State Bank of India
4. HDFC Bank
Ans. (2)
6. Haier is known to be world’s…………. Appliances brand.
1. second largest
3. third largest
2. largest
4. fifth largest
Ans. (1)
7. Swift is a car launched by
1. Honda
2. Toyota
3. Maruti Suzuki
4. Tata Motors
Ans. (3)
8. One of the world’s biggest gas reserves was found in
1. Bombay High
2. Krishna-Godavari basin
3. Rajasthan
4. None of the above
Ans. (2)
9. Wockhardt Ltd. is a company dealing with.
1. Textiles
2. Steel
3. Pharmaceuticals and Biotechnology
4. Automobiles and Electronics
Ans. (3)
10. Westside Stores is an enterprise of
1. Aditya Birla Group
2. Tatas
3. Raymond
4. None of these
Ans. (2)
Business Quiz Questions - India Business Quiz with Answers
india management business quiz
1. Which FMCG major had acquired Balsara for Rs. 143 crore in an all-cash deal?
1.HLL
2..Godrej
3. Dabur
4. None of these
Ans. (3)
2. Which is not brand from Godrej Group?
1. Ezee
2. Fair Glow
3. Harpic
4. Cinthol
Ans. (3)
3. PC maker company ‘Lenovo Group’, presently 8th largest in the world, and which is entering Indian market also, is a company from
1. China
2. Malaysia
3. Japan
4. South Korea
Ans. (1)
4. The ‘Neticket’ scheme, which allows a passenger to fly without ever visiting a reservation counter has been introduced by
1. Jet Airways
2. Sahara Air
3. Indian Airlines
4. None of these
Ans. (3)
5. S.S. Kohli is/was associated with
1. Indian Bank
2. Punjab National Bank
3. State Bank of India
4. HDFC Bank
Ans. (2)
6. Haier is known to be world’s…………. Appliances brand.
1. second largest
3. third largest
2. largest
4. fifth largest
Ans. (1)
7. Swift is a car launched by
1. Honda
2. Toyota
3. Maruti Suzuki
4. Tata Motors
Ans. (3)
8. One of the world’s biggest gas reserves was found in
1. Bombay High
2. Krishna-Godavari basin
3. Rajasthan
4. None of the above
Ans. (2)
9. Wockhardt Ltd. is a company dealing with.
1. Textiles
2. Steel
3. Pharmaceuticals and Biotechnology
4. Automobiles and Electronics
Ans. (3)
10. Westside Stores is an enterprise of
1. Aditya Birla Group
2. Tatas
3. Raymond
4. None of these
Ans. (2)
MCQ Psychology for exams
MCQ Psychology for exams
online mcq on psychology test
MCQ Psychology for exams Practice test
1. Perceptual constancy is contingent upon—
(A) Acuity of the sense organs
(B) Conditions of the stimulus
(C) Monocular cues of depth perception
(D) Binocular cues of distance perception
Ans. (B)
2. The I. Q’s above 130 are found in about—
(A) 1 per cent of the total population.
(B) 4 per cent of the total population.
(C) 2 per cent of the total population.
(D) 3 per cent of the total population.
Ans. (C)
3. The general intelligence factor (g) is the major determinant of performance on the intelligence test items according to—
(A) Thurstone
(B) Spearman
(C) Guttman
(D) Binet
Ans. (B)
4. Which symbol given by Thurston to find the principle in a group of sentences—
(A) V
(B) W
(C) P
(D) R
Ans. (D)
5. WAIS and WISC are tests of—
(A) Intelligence
(B) Personality
(C) Interests
(D) Aptitude
Ans. (A)
6. A good dancer must have high—
(A) Body kinetic intelligence
(B) Musical ability
(C) Fluid intelligence
(D) Personal intelligence
Ans. (A)
7. The first group test of intelligence ever constructed in India was—
(A) Jalota Test of General Mental ability
(B) Mahalanobis group test of intelligence in Bengali.
(C) Mohsin’s Test of general intelligence.
(D) Bhatia Battey test of general intelligence.
Ans. (B)
8. In Guilford model ‘memory or M’ includes in—
(A) Process
(B) Product
(C) Content
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
9. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) Group factor theory of intelligence is associated with Thurstone
(B) Multifactor theory of intelligence was propounded by Thorndike
(C) Three Dimensional structure of intellect (SOI) was developed by Guilford
(D) Two factor theory of intelligence was proposed by Vernon
Ans. (D)
10. The first Indian apdaptation of Standford Binet Test of Intelligence was done by—
(A) Kamat (Marathi and Kannada)
(B) Dr. Rice (Urdu and Punjabi)
(C) Shukla (Gujrati)
(D) Sohan Lal (Hindi)
Ans. (B)
11. Match list I with list II.
List I
(a) Sampling theory
(b) Primary mental abilities
(c) Structure of intellect model
(d) Hierarchical model of abilities
List II
1. Vernon
2. Thomson
3. Thurstone
4. Guilford
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (A)
12. If you have been staring at a bright object intently and it is removed suddenly, you will continue to see images of the object. This is an example of:
(A) An optical illusion
(B) An after-image
(C) A visual purple effect
(D) Purkinje phenomenon
Ans. (B)
13. The principles of organization holds good for:
(A) Visual sense only
(B) Visual and auditory senses
(C) Visual and tactile senses
(D) Visual, auditory and tactile senses
Ans. (D)
14, Stereoscopic experiences are due to:
(A) Retinal disparity
(B) Monolocular cues
(C) Superposition effects
(D) Relativity in sizes
Ans. (A)
15. Which of the following provides scores on ten standarized clinical scales so as to separate medical or psychiatric patients from
normal controls?
(A) Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS)
(B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
(C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
(D) Bender Gestalt Test
Ans. (B)
16. Match list I (psychologists) with list II (psychological tests)—
List I
1. Raven
2. Wechsler
3. Torrance
4. Terman
List II
(a) Global intelligence
(b) Minnesota Test of Creative thinking
(c) Standard progressive Matrics
(d) Concept Mastery Test of intelligence
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 4 2 3 l
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (D)
17. Repetition of S-R-reinforcement sequence contributes to:
(A) Weaker association between S-R
(B) No association between S-R
(C) Stronger association between S-R
(D) Time spent on conditioning
Ans. (C)
10. Which types of syllables eliminate and control meaningfulness as a factor in verbal learning?
(A) Vowels
(B) Meaningful words
(C) Both meaningful and nonsense words
(D) Nonsense words
Ans. (D)
12. Organization in long-term memory is demonstrated by
(A) The tip of the tongue phenomenon
(B) Propositional network theory
(C) Now print theory
(D) PPT Test
Ans. (A)
14. Forgetting is not caused by:
(A) Factors relating to learned material
(B) Factors related to retention interval
(C) Factors related to learning
(D) Factors relating to the learner
Ans. (A)
17. Deductive thinking refers to thinking in which:
(A) The individual goes beyond the present information, adding new elements that are not inherent in the known facts
(B) An inference or conclusion is derived logically from information on hand
(C) The individual judges the suitability or appropriateness of an idea
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)
2. The variable effected by changes in the antecedent conditions is called—
(A) The dependent variable
(B) The controlling variable
(C) The independent variable
(D) The moderator variable
Ans. (A)
23. Which of the following cannot be a quality of good hypothesis?
(A) Modifiability
(B) Clarity
(C) Plauribility
(D) Verifiability
Ans. (A)
24. A son who has a harsh father may feel generally hostile to all his superiors. This is an example of:
(A) Generalized anxiety
(B) Generalized anger
(C) Generalized fear
(D) Direct aggression
Ans. (B)
25. The sympathetic system:
(A) Acts as a unit
(B) Acts in a piecemeal manner, affecting one organ at a time
(C) Is dominant in quiescence
(D) Both (A) and (C) are correct
Ans. (A)
online mcq on psychology test
MCQ Psychology for exams Practice test
1. Perceptual constancy is contingent upon—
(A) Acuity of the sense organs
(B) Conditions of the stimulus
(C) Monocular cues of depth perception
(D) Binocular cues of distance perception
Ans. (B)
2. The I. Q’s above 130 are found in about—
(A) 1 per cent of the total population.
(B) 4 per cent of the total population.
(C) 2 per cent of the total population.
(D) 3 per cent of the total population.
Ans. (C)
3. The general intelligence factor (g) is the major determinant of performance on the intelligence test items according to—
(A) Thurstone
(B) Spearman
(C) Guttman
(D) Binet
Ans. (B)
4. Which symbol given by Thurston to find the principle in a group of sentences—
(A) V
(B) W
(C) P
(D) R
Ans. (D)
5. WAIS and WISC are tests of—
(A) Intelligence
(B) Personality
(C) Interests
(D) Aptitude
Ans. (A)
6. A good dancer must have high—
(A) Body kinetic intelligence
(B) Musical ability
(C) Fluid intelligence
(D) Personal intelligence
Ans. (A)
7. The first group test of intelligence ever constructed in India was—
(A) Jalota Test of General Mental ability
(B) Mahalanobis group test of intelligence in Bengali.
(C) Mohsin’s Test of general intelligence.
(D) Bhatia Battey test of general intelligence.
Ans. (B)
8. In Guilford model ‘memory or M’ includes in—
(A) Process
(B) Product
(C) Content
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
9. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) Group factor theory of intelligence is associated with Thurstone
(B) Multifactor theory of intelligence was propounded by Thorndike
(C) Three Dimensional structure of intellect (SOI) was developed by Guilford
(D) Two factor theory of intelligence was proposed by Vernon
Ans. (D)
10. The first Indian apdaptation of Standford Binet Test of Intelligence was done by—
(A) Kamat (Marathi and Kannada)
(B) Dr. Rice (Urdu and Punjabi)
(C) Shukla (Gujrati)
(D) Sohan Lal (Hindi)
Ans. (B)
11. Match list I with list II.
List I
(a) Sampling theory
(b) Primary mental abilities
(c) Structure of intellect model
(d) Hierarchical model of abilities
List II
1. Vernon
2. Thomson
3. Thurstone
4. Guilford
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (A)
12. If you have been staring at a bright object intently and it is removed suddenly, you will continue to see images of the object. This is an example of:
(A) An optical illusion
(B) An after-image
(C) A visual purple effect
(D) Purkinje phenomenon
Ans. (B)
13. The principles of organization holds good for:
(A) Visual sense only
(B) Visual and auditory senses
(C) Visual and tactile senses
(D) Visual, auditory and tactile senses
Ans. (D)
14, Stereoscopic experiences are due to:
(A) Retinal disparity
(B) Monolocular cues
(C) Superposition effects
(D) Relativity in sizes
Ans. (A)
15. Which of the following provides scores on ten standarized clinical scales so as to separate medical or psychiatric patients from
normal controls?
(A) Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS)
(B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
(C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
(D) Bender Gestalt Test
Ans. (B)
16. Match list I (psychologists) with list II (psychological tests)—
List I
1. Raven
2. Wechsler
3. Torrance
4. Terman
List II
(a) Global intelligence
(b) Minnesota Test of Creative thinking
(c) Standard progressive Matrics
(d) Concept Mastery Test of intelligence
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 4 2 3 l
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (D)
17. Repetition of S-R-reinforcement sequence contributes to:
(A) Weaker association between S-R
(B) No association between S-R
(C) Stronger association between S-R
(D) Time spent on conditioning
Ans. (C)
10. Which types of syllables eliminate and control meaningfulness as a factor in verbal learning?
(A) Vowels
(B) Meaningful words
(C) Both meaningful and nonsense words
(D) Nonsense words
Ans. (D)
12. Organization in long-term memory is demonstrated by
(A) The tip of the tongue phenomenon
(B) Propositional network theory
(C) Now print theory
(D) PPT Test
Ans. (A)
14. Forgetting is not caused by:
(A) Factors relating to learned material
(B) Factors related to retention interval
(C) Factors related to learning
(D) Factors relating to the learner
Ans. (A)
17. Deductive thinking refers to thinking in which:
(A) The individual goes beyond the present information, adding new elements that are not inherent in the known facts
(B) An inference or conclusion is derived logically from information on hand
(C) The individual judges the suitability or appropriateness of an idea
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)
2. The variable effected by changes in the antecedent conditions is called—
(A) The dependent variable
(B) The controlling variable
(C) The independent variable
(D) The moderator variable
Ans. (A)
23. Which of the following cannot be a quality of good hypothesis?
(A) Modifiability
(B) Clarity
(C) Plauribility
(D) Verifiability
Ans. (A)
24. A son who has a harsh father may feel generally hostile to all his superiors. This is an example of:
(A) Generalized anxiety
(B) Generalized anger
(C) Generalized fear
(D) Direct aggression
Ans. (B)
25. The sympathetic system:
(A) Acts as a unit
(B) Acts in a piecemeal manner, affecting one organ at a time
(C) Is dominant in quiescence
(D) Both (A) and (C) are correct
Ans. (A)
Saturday, July 2, 2011
Solved MCQ Quiz on constitution of india
Solved MCQ Quiz on constitution of india
Quiz on Indian Constitution
India PoliticaL GK Solved Question Bank MCQ
Tick the correct choice amongst the following:
1. The gap between the two consecutive sessions of the Parliament can not be more than
(a) four months
(b) five months
(c) Six months
(d) eight months
Ans. (c)
2. The President’s rule in states can continue for
(a) two months
(b) six months
(c) one year
(d) Any length of time
Ans. (c)
3. During the question hour, the question is given to
(a) The Speaker
(b) The Deputy Speaker
(c) The Secretary General of the house
(d) all of the above
Ans. (c)
4. How many members are there in the Estimate Committee of the Lok Sabha? ‘
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
Ans. (c)
5. How many types of emergencies are provided in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 0
Ans. (a)
6. The dead lock over a bill is resolved when
(a) The bill is passed again in the Lok Sabha
(b) The decision of the Lok Sabha is final
(c) The President may call a joint sitting of the two houses to decide the matter
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may call a joint sitting of the houses to decide the matter
Ans. (c)
7. The President has the emergency powers such as
(a) Emergency caused by a war or external aggression
(b) Emergency caused by the break down of constitutional machinery in a state
(c) Financial emergency
(d) All the above powers
Ans. (d)
8. The collective responsibility means
(a) The whole cabinet discusses and formulates the policies of the government
(b) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
(c) The members of the Council of Ministers are individually responsible to the Lok Sabha
(d) All of the above are true
Ans. (d)
9. The three financial powers of the President are
(a) Appoints the finance commissioner
(b) He appoints the planning commissioner
(c) He considers certain financial bills reserved by the state government
(d) He causes the budget to be laid before the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans. (a)
10. The Electoral College that elects the Vice President of India consists of
(a) Members of both the houses of parliament
(b) Members of legislative assembly of all the states
(c) Members of legislative assembly of the union territories
(d) None of the above members
Ans. (a)
11. “The Agency of Machinery through which the state realizes its objective” is
(a) Constitution
(b) Nation
(c) Government
(d) Parliament
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following do not have a unicameral legislature?
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Portugal
(d) Denmark
Ans. (b)
13. Which of the following organs of the government is the custodian of the national purse?
(a) The Judiciary
(b) The Executive
(c) The legislature
(d) All of these
Ans. (b)
14. The House of Lords is the highest court of appeal in
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) S. Africa
(d) Britain
Ans. (d)
15. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Under Article 352, the first proclamation of emergency was made on October 26,
1962
(b) The second proclamation of emergency order Article 352 was issued on December
31, 1971
(c) The third proclamation of emergency was issued on June 25, 1975
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
16. Who had the longest term of Vice-Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(b) Shri G.S. Pathal
(c) Shri B.D. Jatti
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
17. Who had the longest term of Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Zail Singh
(c) Shri V.V. Gin
(d) Shri N.S. Reddy
Ans. (a)
18. The Ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission of India is
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Minister for Planning
Ans. (c)
19. Which one of the following issues ordinances when the Parliament is not in session?
(a) Speaker
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Union Cabinet
Ans. (c)
20. The President nominates twelve members of the Rajya Sabha on the basis of
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies
(b) Their role played in political setup of the country
(c) The recommendation made by the Vice- President
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
Ans. (d)
Quiz on Indian Constitution
India PoliticaL GK Solved Question Bank MCQ
Tick the correct choice amongst the following:
1. The gap between the two consecutive sessions of the Parliament can not be more than
(a) four months
(b) five months
(c) Six months
(d) eight months
Ans. (c)
2. The President’s rule in states can continue for
(a) two months
(b) six months
(c) one year
(d) Any length of time
Ans. (c)
3. During the question hour, the question is given to
(a) The Speaker
(b) The Deputy Speaker
(c) The Secretary General of the house
(d) all of the above
Ans. (c)
4. How many members are there in the Estimate Committee of the Lok Sabha? ‘
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
Ans. (c)
5. How many types of emergencies are provided in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 0
Ans. (a)
6. The dead lock over a bill is resolved when
(a) The bill is passed again in the Lok Sabha
(b) The decision of the Lok Sabha is final
(c) The President may call a joint sitting of the two houses to decide the matter
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may call a joint sitting of the houses to decide the matter
Ans. (c)
7. The President has the emergency powers such as
(a) Emergency caused by a war or external aggression
(b) Emergency caused by the break down of constitutional machinery in a state
(c) Financial emergency
(d) All the above powers
Ans. (d)
8. The collective responsibility means
(a) The whole cabinet discusses and formulates the policies of the government
(b) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
(c) The members of the Council of Ministers are individually responsible to the Lok Sabha
(d) All of the above are true
Ans. (d)
9. The three financial powers of the President are
(a) Appoints the finance commissioner
(b) He appoints the planning commissioner
(c) He considers certain financial bills reserved by the state government
(d) He causes the budget to be laid before the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans. (a)
10. The Electoral College that elects the Vice President of India consists of
(a) Members of both the houses of parliament
(b) Members of legislative assembly of all the states
(c) Members of legislative assembly of the union territories
(d) None of the above members
Ans. (a)
11. “The Agency of Machinery through which the state realizes its objective” is
(a) Constitution
(b) Nation
(c) Government
(d) Parliament
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following do not have a unicameral legislature?
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Portugal
(d) Denmark
Ans. (b)
13. Which of the following organs of the government is the custodian of the national purse?
(a) The Judiciary
(b) The Executive
(c) The legislature
(d) All of these
Ans. (b)
14. The House of Lords is the highest court of appeal in
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) S. Africa
(d) Britain
Ans. (d)
15. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Under Article 352, the first proclamation of emergency was made on October 26,
1962
(b) The second proclamation of emergency order Article 352 was issued on December
31, 1971
(c) The third proclamation of emergency was issued on June 25, 1975
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
16. Who had the longest term of Vice-Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(b) Shri G.S. Pathal
(c) Shri B.D. Jatti
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
17. Who had the longest term of Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Zail Singh
(c) Shri V.V. Gin
(d) Shri N.S. Reddy
Ans. (a)
18. The Ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission of India is
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Minister for Planning
Ans. (c)
19. Which one of the following issues ordinances when the Parliament is not in session?
(a) Speaker
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Union Cabinet
Ans. (c)
20. The President nominates twelve members of the Rajya Sabha on the basis of
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies
(b) Their role played in political setup of the country
(c) The recommendation made by the Vice- President
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
Ans. (d)
Solved geometry Sample paper for NDA exam
Solved geometry Sample paper for NDA exam
NDA exam question papers -
NDA sample papers
National Defence Academy Exam (NDA Exam) Free Online test
1. The angle subtended by an arc of a circle at the centre is K times the angle
subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle, then K is equal to
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans. (c)
2. The angle in a segment greater than a semicircle is
(a) 90°
(b) less than 90°
(c) greater than 90°
(d) not known
Ans. (c)
3. There are two concentric circles of radii 13 cm and 12 cm. Then the length of the
chord of the outer circle which touches the inner circle is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 13 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 12.5 cm
Ans. (c)
4. The locus of a point equidistant from two intersecting lines is a
(a) circle
(b) pair of parallel lines
(c) hyperbola
(d) pair of bisectors of angles
Ans. (d)
5. To determine any straight line, at least K points are required. Then K is equal to
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (c)
6. The point of concurrency of three altitudes of a triangle is called its
(a) incentre
(b) circumcentre
(c) centroid
(d) orthocentre
Ans. (d)
7. At 4.24 pm, how many degrees has the hour hand of a clock moved from its position
at noon?
(a) 135°
(b) 134°
(c) 133°
(d) 132°
Ans. (d)
8. If two circles touch each other externally, then the number of common tangents to
the circles is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (b)
9. A circle is inscribed in a triangle whose sides arc 8 cm, 15 cm and 17 cm then the
radius of the circle is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
10. ABCD is a cyclic trapezium and AB CD. If AB be the diameter of the circle and
CAB = 30°, then the value of ADC is
(a) 110°
(b) 115°
(c) 120°
(d) 125°
Ans. (c)
11. The distance of the chord of length 16 cm, from the centre of the circle of diameter
20 cm, is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 6 cm
Ans. (d)
12. The centres of two circles with radii 8 cm and 3 cm are 13 cm apart. A direct
common tangent touches the circles at A and B respectively, then the length of AB
is
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
13. The maximum number of common tangents drawn to two intersecting circles is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (b)
14. The length of the tangent from an external point, at a distance of 13 cm from the
centre of the circle of radius 5 cm, is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 13 cm
(d) 14 cm
Ans. (b)
15. The measure of an angle which is five times its supplement is
(a) 36°
(b) 30°
(c) 50°
(d) 180°
Ans. (c)
NDA exam question papers -
NDA sample papers
National Defence Academy Exam (NDA Exam) Free Online test
1. The angle subtended by an arc of a circle at the centre is K times the angle
subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle, then K is equal to
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans. (c)
2. The angle in a segment greater than a semicircle is
(a) 90°
(b) less than 90°
(c) greater than 90°
(d) not known
Ans. (c)
3. There are two concentric circles of radii 13 cm and 12 cm. Then the length of the
chord of the outer circle which touches the inner circle is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 13 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 12.5 cm
Ans. (c)
4. The locus of a point equidistant from two intersecting lines is a
(a) circle
(b) pair of parallel lines
(c) hyperbola
(d) pair of bisectors of angles
Ans. (d)
5. To determine any straight line, at least K points are required. Then K is equal to
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (c)
6. The point of concurrency of three altitudes of a triangle is called its
(a) incentre
(b) circumcentre
(c) centroid
(d) orthocentre
Ans. (d)
7. At 4.24 pm, how many degrees has the hour hand of a clock moved from its position
at noon?
(a) 135°
(b) 134°
(c) 133°
(d) 132°
Ans. (d)
8. If two circles touch each other externally, then the number of common tangents to
the circles is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (b)
9. A circle is inscribed in a triangle whose sides arc 8 cm, 15 cm and 17 cm then the
radius of the circle is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
10. ABCD is a cyclic trapezium and AB CD. If AB be the diameter of the circle and
CAB = 30°, then the value of ADC is
(a) 110°
(b) 115°
(c) 120°
(d) 125°
Ans. (c)
11. The distance of the chord of length 16 cm, from the centre of the circle of diameter
20 cm, is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 6 cm
Ans. (d)
12. The centres of two circles with radii 8 cm and 3 cm are 13 cm apart. A direct
common tangent touches the circles at A and B respectively, then the length of AB
is
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
13. The maximum number of common tangents drawn to two intersecting circles is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (b)
14. The length of the tangent from an external point, at a distance of 13 cm from the
centre of the circle of radius 5 cm, is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 13 cm
(d) 14 cm
Ans. (b)
15. The measure of an angle which is five times its supplement is
(a) 36°
(b) 30°
(c) 50°
(d) 180°
Ans. (c)
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