Home Science Objective Sample paper
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER HOME SCIENCE
ugc net home science sample question paper
1. Foods high in cholesterol include
(a) French dressing, burger relish
(b) Soya milk, porridge oats
(c) Lamb’s liver, prawns
(d) Olive oil, corn oil
2. Which of the following could be symptoms of diabetes?
(a) Increased thirst, frequent urination
(b) Dizziness, hunger
(c) Disturbed behaviour, over activity
(d) Impulsiveness, aggressiveness
3. What is the common name for the zygomatic bone?
(a) The jaw bone
(b) The cheek bone
(c) The forehead
(d) The skull
4. How is lymph drained back into the bloodstream?
(a) Through the lymphaticapi1laries
(b) Through the spleen
(c) Through the lymphatic nodes
(d) Through the lymphatic ducts
5. Myosin is a contractile protein in
(a) A myofibril
(b) A muscle fibre
(c) A nerve
(d) The perimysium
6. What is lactic acid defined as?
(a) The highest volume of oxygen a person can consume during exercise
(b) A waste product of aerobic energy production
(c) The physiological stress on the body during exercise
(d) A waste product of anaerobic energy production
7. Which exercise for the gastrocnemius muscle should you include your routine?
(a) Heel raises
(b) Toe tapping
(c) Hair string curls
(d) Lateral raises
8. To increase the intensity of an exercise you-should include the
(a) Feet
(b) Arms
(c) Hands
(d) Shoulders
9. What is lordosis?
(a) Exaggerated inward curvature of the spine
(b) Sideways curvature of the spine
(c) Exaggerated outward curvature of the spine
(d) Porosity and brittleness of bone
10. What type of dietary fibre is helpful in lowering the blood cholesterol level?
(a) Soluble fibre
(b) Wheat bran
(c) Insoluble fibre
(d) Cellulose
11. Which nutrient is protective against hypertension?
(a) Potassium
(b) Chloride
(c) Alcohol
(d) Iron
12. The most concentrated source of vitamin B12 is:
(a) fruit
(b) whole grain cereals
(c) beans
(d) meat
13. A type of food believed to have a preventive effect on various types of cancer is
(a) fruits
(b) vegetables
(c) fish
(d) a and b
14. The nutrient strongly associated with the prevention of neural tube defects is
(a) beta-carotene
(b) zinc
(c) folate
(d) vitamin C
15. The recommended maximum percentage of fat in the total daily energy intake is
(a) 12%
(b) 30%
(c) 37%
(d) 55%
16. The body mass index (BMI) and the weight range of a woman who weighs 82 kilograms and is 165 centimeters tall would be
(a) 49.70 and obese
(b) 24.85 and healthy
(c) 30.14 and obese
(d) 20.12 and acceptable
17. Osteomalacia occurs in adults who are deficient in
(a) calcium and potassium
(b) vitamin A and calcium
(c) vitamin D and vitamin A
(d) vitamin D and calcium
18. Food contaminants
(a) result from the use of agricultural chemicals and pesticides and are in all foods
(b) are unintentionally incorporated in foods during a phase of production
(c) are intentionally incorporated in many foods to increase their nutrient value
(d) result from industrial, sabotage and pollution during food processing
19. Which of the following statements correctly describes aseptic packaging?
(a) A technique used to vacuum-seal foods in plastic sachets
(b) A process of filling sterile containers with sterile foods
(c) The removal of oxygen from a food package before it is sealed
(d) The addition of materials to modify the composition of gases during food storage
20. Which of the following additives would reduce microbial growth in a food?
(a) Salt
(b) Water
(c) Acid
(d) Both a and c
21. Which of the following is classified as an antioxidant?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Sodium bicarbonate
(c) Calcium silicate
(d) Sorbitol
22. Which of the following foods would be exempted from nutritional labeling?
(a) Milk
(b) Coffee
(c) Fruit bars
(d) Diet foods
23. __________ means that the product contains bacteria that can make more of the product.
(a) Active ingredients
(b) Active culture
(c) Active byproducts
(d) Live bacteria
24. The first food product to use modern biotechnology (bioengineering) is
(a) milk
(b) tomato
(c) cheese
(d) corn
25. Freeze-drying is a method where water is removed from a frozen food product. The industry name for this process is __________.
(a) sublimation
(b) vaporization
(c) cryogenics
(d) lyophilization
Answers:
1 c
2 b
3 b
4 d
5 b
6 b
7 d
8 a
9 a
10 a
11 a
12 d
13 b
14 c
15 b
16 b
17 d
18 b
19 b
20 d
21 a
22 b
23 b
24 b
25 d
Saturday, June 25, 2011
Thursday, June 23, 2011
Objective Solved Questions on Indian Music
Objective Solved Questions on Indian Music
Solved questions about Indian classical music
Music Quiz Multiple Choice Question Answers
1. Pt. Ravi Shankar belongs to
which Gharana?
(A) Senia Gharana
(B) Mathar Charana
(C) Indore Gharana
(D) Not any
2. Writer of ‘Sangeet Parijat’ is—
(A) Pt. Ahobal
(B) Damodar Pandit
(C) Pt. Sarangdev
(D) Not any
3.Which instrument is not instinct
(Tata) instrument?
(A) Saranga
(B) Ravan Hattha
(C) Kamayacha
(D) Pungi
4. Ehagat Vocal form is mainly related to—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Maharashtra
5. How many pardas are there in the Sitar of Maihar Gharana?
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 22
(D) 19
6. Where ‘Ma’ is placed in old Sruti
Division?
(A) 9th
(B) 13th
(C)15th
(D) 17th
7. Which Rag is not of ‘Audav Jati’?
(A)Bhupali
(B) Deshkar
(C)Sankra
(D) Malkauns
8. ‘Re Ga Ma Pa Dha are of which Raga Notes?
(A) Bhairav
(B) Ahir Bhairav
(C) Nat Bhairav
(D) Not any
9. Which is called as ‘Pancham Veda’?
(A) Samveda
(B) Natyasashtra
(C) Rigveda
(D) Yajurveda
10. Types of Samgana
(A)2
(B)3
(C)4
(D)5
11. Which note of Samgana is similar to present note?
(A)Ga
(B) Ma
(C)Pa
(D) Dha
12. Distance of ‘Risabha’ on Veena’s
wire from ghudach—
(A)2”
(B) 4”
(C)34”
(D) 32”
13. Types of ancient Anibaddha Gana
(A)2
(C)4
(B)3
(D)5
14. Which note in Madhyam Gram is one shruti below?
(A)Sa
(B) Re
(C)Ga
(D) Pa
15. Accompaniment of Dhrupad is done on which instrument?
(A)Tabla
(B) Mridang
(C) Pakh
(D) Dhol
16. How many chapters are there in ‘Sangeet Ratnakar’?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
17. How many types of Geet are there?
(A)2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
18. ‘Ga ti ta’ is which Tala
(A) Kaharava
(B) Jhamptal
(C) Jhoomara
(D) Dhamar
19. Which rag uses “Sa Re Ga Ma Ga Re Sa”?
(A) Bhairavi
(B) Bhairav
(C) Malgunji
(D) Malkons
20. Who is not an artist of Agra Gharana
(A) Faiz Khan
(B) Bade Gul Ali Khan
(C) DeepaliN
(D) Dhagge Khuda Baksha
21. ‘Chayanat’ Magazine is published from where?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
22. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Jati Rag
(b) Thumri
(c) Dhruva Giti
(d) Antar Gandhar
List-Il
1. Vazid Ali Shah
2. Natya Shastra
3. Jati Gayan
4. Vikrit Swar
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
23. Match the following— List-I
(a) Re Dha Komal Ma Teevra
(b) Re Ga Dha Komal Ma Teevra
(c) Ma Ni Varjit
(d) Re Pa Varjit
List-II
1. Malkauns
2. Pooriya Dhanashree
3. Todi
4. Bhoopali
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2. 3 4 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
24. Assertion and Reasoning—
Assertion (A): Composition is an important organ in deriving Rasa in a Raga.
Reason (R): Swar, Tala, Lay, Words, Tan, Alankar, Kaku etc. when used in proper and balanced way create Rasa in composition.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) (A) and (R) both are false
(C) (A) and (R) both are true
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
25. Set them in chronological order
(A) Khanda, Tistra, Chatastra,Mishra
(B) Tistra, Chatastra, Khanda,Mishra
(C) Chatastra, Tistra, Mishra,Khanda
(D) Khanda, Chatastra, Tistra,Mishra
ANSWERS:
1 B
2 A
3 D
4 A
5 B
6 B
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 B
11 A
12 D
13 D
14 D
15 C
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 A
20 A
21 A
22 B
23 C
24 C
25 B
Solved questions about Indian classical music
Music Quiz Multiple Choice Question Answers
1. Pt. Ravi Shankar belongs to
which Gharana?
(A) Senia Gharana
(B) Mathar Charana
(C) Indore Gharana
(D) Not any
2. Writer of ‘Sangeet Parijat’ is—
(A) Pt. Ahobal
(B) Damodar Pandit
(C) Pt. Sarangdev
(D) Not any
3.Which instrument is not instinct
(Tata) instrument?
(A) Saranga
(B) Ravan Hattha
(C) Kamayacha
(D) Pungi
4. Ehagat Vocal form is mainly related to—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Maharashtra
5. How many pardas are there in the Sitar of Maihar Gharana?
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 22
(D) 19
6. Where ‘Ma’ is placed in old Sruti
Division?
(A) 9th
(B) 13th
(C)15th
(D) 17th
7. Which Rag is not of ‘Audav Jati’?
(A)Bhupali
(B) Deshkar
(C)Sankra
(D) Malkauns
8. ‘Re Ga Ma Pa Dha are of which Raga Notes?
(A) Bhairav
(B) Ahir Bhairav
(C) Nat Bhairav
(D) Not any
9. Which is called as ‘Pancham Veda’?
(A) Samveda
(B) Natyasashtra
(C) Rigveda
(D) Yajurveda
10. Types of Samgana
(A)2
(B)3
(C)4
(D)5
11. Which note of Samgana is similar to present note?
(A)Ga
(B) Ma
(C)Pa
(D) Dha
12. Distance of ‘Risabha’ on Veena’s
wire from ghudach—
(A)2”
(B) 4”
(C)34”
(D) 32”
13. Types of ancient Anibaddha Gana
(A)2
(C)4
(B)3
(D)5
14. Which note in Madhyam Gram is one shruti below?
(A)Sa
(B) Re
(C)Ga
(D) Pa
15. Accompaniment of Dhrupad is done on which instrument?
(A)Tabla
(B) Mridang
(C) Pakh
(D) Dhol
16. How many chapters are there in ‘Sangeet Ratnakar’?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
17. How many types of Geet are there?
(A)2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
18. ‘Ga ti ta’ is which Tala
(A) Kaharava
(B) Jhamptal
(C) Jhoomara
(D) Dhamar
19. Which rag uses “Sa Re Ga Ma Ga Re Sa”?
(A) Bhairavi
(B) Bhairav
(C) Malgunji
(D) Malkons
20. Who is not an artist of Agra Gharana
(A) Faiz Khan
(B) Bade Gul Ali Khan
(C) DeepaliN
(D) Dhagge Khuda Baksha
21. ‘Chayanat’ Magazine is published from where?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
22. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Jati Rag
(b) Thumri
(c) Dhruva Giti
(d) Antar Gandhar
List-Il
1. Vazid Ali Shah
2. Natya Shastra
3. Jati Gayan
4. Vikrit Swar
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
23. Match the following— List-I
(a) Re Dha Komal Ma Teevra
(b) Re Ga Dha Komal Ma Teevra
(c) Ma Ni Varjit
(d) Re Pa Varjit
List-II
1. Malkauns
2. Pooriya Dhanashree
3. Todi
4. Bhoopali
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2. 3 4 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
24. Assertion and Reasoning—
Assertion (A): Composition is an important organ in deriving Rasa in a Raga.
Reason (R): Swar, Tala, Lay, Words, Tan, Alankar, Kaku etc. when used in proper and balanced way create Rasa in composition.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) (A) and (R) both are false
(C) (A) and (R) both are true
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
25. Set them in chronological order
(A) Khanda, Tistra, Chatastra,Mishra
(B) Tistra, Chatastra, Khanda,Mishra
(C) Chatastra, Tistra, Mishra,Khanda
(D) Khanda, Chatastra, Tistra,Mishra
ANSWERS:
1 B
2 A
3 D
4 A
5 B
6 B
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 B
11 A
12 D
13 D
14 D
15 C
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 A
20 A
21 A
22 B
23 C
24 C
25 B
Tuesday, June 21, 2011
Psychology Objective test
Psychology Objective test
psychology objective questions and answers Solved
Psychology Free Objective Test
1. When cold water (0—5°C) is Circulated through one coil and warm water (40 —44°C) through another interwining coil, the
subject on grasping the coils experience the following sensation—
(A) An ambivalent sensation of hot and cold
(B) Cold, freezing sensation
(C) Hot, burning sensation
(D) Warm, comfortable sensation
Ans. (C)
2. Perceptions are not affected by—
(A) Behavior
(B) Tension and anxiety
(C) Suggestions
(D) Hunger
Ans. (A)
3. The law of perception were formulated by the—
(A) Behaviorists
(B) Psychoanalysts
(C) Gestaltists
(D) Existentialists
Ans. (C)
4. The following is not a law of perceptual organisation—
(A) Proximity
(B) Similarity
(C) Pregnanz
(D) Contract
Ans. (D)
5. The following are the internal factors that direct attention—
(A) Motives
(B) Preparatory set
(C) Needs
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
6. If you mark off three equally distant points on the back of a person’s hand, touch a pencil on the first two points, and pause
slightly before you touch the third, the person will report that first two points were closer together than the second and third. This
perception illustrates grouping of tactile stimuli according to—
(A) Nearness in space
(B) Nearness in time
(C) Continuation in time
(D) Closure in time
Ans. (B)
7. Which of the following is not correct about monocular cues of depth perception?
(A) Monocular cues are movement related
(B) Monocular cues are without movement
(C) Monocular cues are both with and without movement
(D) Monocular have nothing to do with depth perception
Ans. (D)
8. Experiments using special glasses (or prisms) in which the subject adopted his visual motor habits in a visually rearranged
environment indicated the role of learning in—
(A) Location constancy
(B) Size constancy
(C) Shape constancy
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
9. When we look at a figure for sometime and then look at another figure, the perception of the second figure is distorted. This
phenomenon is referred to as—
(A) After image
(B) Illusion
(C) The figure after effect
(D) Distorted perception
Ans. (C)
10. The moon is often seen moving behind the clouds. This is an example of—
(A) Real-motion
(B) Phi-phenomenon
(C) Auto kinetic motion
(D) Induced motion
Ans. (D)
11. The neurons in the visual cortex that respond only to stimuli of particular orientation and specific length and width are called—
(A) Simple cells
(B) Complex cells
(C) Hyper complex cells
(D) Hypocomplex cells
Ans. (C)
12. All of the following are true about perceptual constancy except—
(A) In different individuals and in different stimulus situations varied levels of perceptual constancy are found
(B) Perceptual constancy increase with the increased difference between the standard object and comparison object
(C) Perceptual constancy increases with age
(D) Perceptual constancy is determined by innate neural organisation
(E) Perceptual constancy is an artifact of experimental variety
Ans. (E)
13. Which of the following statement is not correct? Perceptual learning—
(A) Can be learned from books
(B) Is observed when we study the increased auditory and factual sensitivity of the blind people
(C) Has practical and adaptive value
(D) Illustrates the plasticity of perception
Ans. (A)
14. Which of the following statement regarding hypnosis is false?
(A) Under hypnosis, attention becomes highly selective
(B) The EEG of the hypnotic, state is that of sleeping
(C) The hypnotised subject readily enacts unusual roles
(D) The ability to be hypnotised may have a hereditary component
Ans. (B)
15. Drug use should be discouraged. Which of the following is not a primary reason for discouraging drug use? Drug use is—
(A) Dangerous to health and even to life
(B) Is costly and likely to lead to illegal activities to maintain a supply
(C) May lead to dry dependency
(D) May result in unpleasant experiences
Ans. (D)
16. Galton developed tests of intelligence by measuring tasks requiring—
(A) Reasoning
(B) Perceptual Motor Skills
(C) Problem solving
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)
17. To predict the outcome of training the following test (s) are most useful—
(A) Aptitude test
(B) Achievement tests
(C) Intelligence tests
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
18. In Thurston theory of intelligence, many factors are developed, shown in symbols, which one were not included—
(A) N
(B) R
(C) M
(D) H
Ans. (D)
19. All of the following are factor theories of intelligence except—
(A) Spearman Two factor theory of intelligence
(B) Thurston’s group factor theory of intelligence
(C) Thorndike’s multiple factor theory of intelligence.
(D) Càtell’s Theory of intelligence.
(E) Gardner’s theory of intelligence
(F) Hierarchical theory of intelligence.
(G) Stenberg’s Triarchic theory of intelligence
Ans. (G)
20. “Closer the blood relation between two groups, the smaller the difference between their I.Qs.” Which of the following is not
correct about this statement?
(A) This is a widely accepted generalization.
(B) This is a research based conclusion.
(C) This is a statement made by psychologists like Wing Field and others.
(D) This is a statement not backed by sufficient evidence.
Ans. (D)
21. Consider Spearman’s theory of intelligence and select untrue statement—
(A) G factor is important in intelligence than S factor
(B) G factor does not effected by education and training.
(C) Nature of S factor are unchangeable.
(D) S factor is effected by experience and training.
Ans. (C)
22. “A condition or set of characteristics indicative of ability to learn’ is the definition of—
(A) Intelligence
(B) Aptitude
(C) Motivation
(D) Interest
Ans. (B)
23. When high correlation exist between different type of mental capacity test, which factor is important according to Spearman—
(A) G factor
(B) S factor
(C) V factor
(D) W factor
Ans. (A)
24. Mental deficiency is characterised by the I. Q. range—
(A) 0—25
(B) 0—50
(C) 0—70
(D) 0—100
Ans. (C)
25. Guilford propounded structure-of-intellectmodel of intelligence in which he describes three dimensions. Which one is not it?
(A) Content
(B) Element
(C) Product
(D) Process
Ans. (B)
psychology objective questions and answers Solved
Psychology Free Objective Test
1. When cold water (0—5°C) is Circulated through one coil and warm water (40 —44°C) through another interwining coil, the
subject on grasping the coils experience the following sensation—
(A) An ambivalent sensation of hot and cold
(B) Cold, freezing sensation
(C) Hot, burning sensation
(D) Warm, comfortable sensation
Ans. (C)
2. Perceptions are not affected by—
(A) Behavior
(B) Tension and anxiety
(C) Suggestions
(D) Hunger
Ans. (A)
3. The law of perception were formulated by the—
(A) Behaviorists
(B) Psychoanalysts
(C) Gestaltists
(D) Existentialists
Ans. (C)
4. The following is not a law of perceptual organisation—
(A) Proximity
(B) Similarity
(C) Pregnanz
(D) Contract
Ans. (D)
5. The following are the internal factors that direct attention—
(A) Motives
(B) Preparatory set
(C) Needs
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
6. If you mark off three equally distant points on the back of a person’s hand, touch a pencil on the first two points, and pause
slightly before you touch the third, the person will report that first two points were closer together than the second and third. This
perception illustrates grouping of tactile stimuli according to—
(A) Nearness in space
(B) Nearness in time
(C) Continuation in time
(D) Closure in time
Ans. (B)
7. Which of the following is not correct about monocular cues of depth perception?
(A) Monocular cues are movement related
(B) Monocular cues are without movement
(C) Monocular cues are both with and without movement
(D) Monocular have nothing to do with depth perception
Ans. (D)
8. Experiments using special glasses (or prisms) in which the subject adopted his visual motor habits in a visually rearranged
environment indicated the role of learning in—
(A) Location constancy
(B) Size constancy
(C) Shape constancy
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
9. When we look at a figure for sometime and then look at another figure, the perception of the second figure is distorted. This
phenomenon is referred to as—
(A) After image
(B) Illusion
(C) The figure after effect
(D) Distorted perception
Ans. (C)
10. The moon is often seen moving behind the clouds. This is an example of—
(A) Real-motion
(B) Phi-phenomenon
(C) Auto kinetic motion
(D) Induced motion
Ans. (D)
11. The neurons in the visual cortex that respond only to stimuli of particular orientation and specific length and width are called—
(A) Simple cells
(B) Complex cells
(C) Hyper complex cells
(D) Hypocomplex cells
Ans. (C)
12. All of the following are true about perceptual constancy except—
(A) In different individuals and in different stimulus situations varied levels of perceptual constancy are found
(B) Perceptual constancy increase with the increased difference between the standard object and comparison object
(C) Perceptual constancy increases with age
(D) Perceptual constancy is determined by innate neural organisation
(E) Perceptual constancy is an artifact of experimental variety
Ans. (E)
13. Which of the following statement is not correct? Perceptual learning—
(A) Can be learned from books
(B) Is observed when we study the increased auditory and factual sensitivity of the blind people
(C) Has practical and adaptive value
(D) Illustrates the plasticity of perception
Ans. (A)
14. Which of the following statement regarding hypnosis is false?
(A) Under hypnosis, attention becomes highly selective
(B) The EEG of the hypnotic, state is that of sleeping
(C) The hypnotised subject readily enacts unusual roles
(D) The ability to be hypnotised may have a hereditary component
Ans. (B)
15. Drug use should be discouraged. Which of the following is not a primary reason for discouraging drug use? Drug use is—
(A) Dangerous to health and even to life
(B) Is costly and likely to lead to illegal activities to maintain a supply
(C) May lead to dry dependency
(D) May result in unpleasant experiences
Ans. (D)
16. Galton developed tests of intelligence by measuring tasks requiring—
(A) Reasoning
(B) Perceptual Motor Skills
(C) Problem solving
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)
17. To predict the outcome of training the following test (s) are most useful—
(A) Aptitude test
(B) Achievement tests
(C) Intelligence tests
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
18. In Thurston theory of intelligence, many factors are developed, shown in symbols, which one were not included—
(A) N
(B) R
(C) M
(D) H
Ans. (D)
19. All of the following are factor theories of intelligence except—
(A) Spearman Two factor theory of intelligence
(B) Thurston’s group factor theory of intelligence
(C) Thorndike’s multiple factor theory of intelligence.
(D) Càtell’s Theory of intelligence.
(E) Gardner’s theory of intelligence
(F) Hierarchical theory of intelligence.
(G) Stenberg’s Triarchic theory of intelligence
Ans. (G)
20. “Closer the blood relation between two groups, the smaller the difference between their I.Qs.” Which of the following is not
correct about this statement?
(A) This is a widely accepted generalization.
(B) This is a research based conclusion.
(C) This is a statement made by psychologists like Wing Field and others.
(D) This is a statement not backed by sufficient evidence.
Ans. (D)
21. Consider Spearman’s theory of intelligence and select untrue statement—
(A) G factor is important in intelligence than S factor
(B) G factor does not effected by education and training.
(C) Nature of S factor are unchangeable.
(D) S factor is effected by experience and training.
Ans. (C)
22. “A condition or set of characteristics indicative of ability to learn’ is the definition of—
(A) Intelligence
(B) Aptitude
(C) Motivation
(D) Interest
Ans. (B)
23. When high correlation exist between different type of mental capacity test, which factor is important according to Spearman—
(A) G factor
(B) S factor
(C) V factor
(D) W factor
Ans. (A)
24. Mental deficiency is characterised by the I. Q. range—
(A) 0—25
(B) 0—50
(C) 0—70
(D) 0—100
Ans. (C)
25. Guilford propounded structure-of-intellectmodel of intelligence in which he describes three dimensions. Which one is not it?
(A) Content
(B) Element
(C) Product
(D) Process
Ans. (B)
Solved Psychology for UGC NET
Solved Psychology for UGC NET
UGC NET Solved Psychology Objective test
practice material for UGC NET Exam
1. If you have to develop a test for a new concept which is the best method of ensuring the validity of that test?
(i) Content
(ii) Empirical/Criterion-related
(iii) Convergent and discriminant
(iv) Factorial
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (B)
2. “The raw material delivered to the brain by the sense organs via the sensory nerves is used and interpreted by the individual in
accordance with his past experience and in furtherance of whatever activities, he may be engaged in at the moment.” The
statement is indicative of the—
(A) Psychology of perception
(B) Psychology of thinking
(C) Psychology of reasoning
(D) Psychology of nervous functioning
Ans. (A)
3. All of the following are principles of perceptual organization except—
(A) Principle of observation and experience
(B) Principle of similarity
(C) Principle of familiarity
(D) Principle of distance
Ans. (A)
4. Assertion (A): There is no relationship between language and thought.
Reason (R): Thought is possible without language.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (D)
5. Which of the following is not true?
(A) The cones are active only in day light vision
(B) The rods permit us to see only achromatic colours
(C) The cones permit us to see both achromatic and chromatic colours
(D) The cones permit us to see only chromatic colours (red, green, blue etc.)
Ans. (D)
6. A set of ideas that fit together to provide a perspective on some aspect of the world is
known as—
(A) Hypothesis
(B) Theory
(C) Law
(D) Variable
Ans. (B)
7. Assertion (A): In pattern recognition people take longer to differentiate between similar letters than dissimilar letters.
Reason (R): Similar letters have many similar features.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (B)
8. The auditory sense is sensitive to—
(A) Electromagnetic energy
(B) Electrical energy
(C) Mechanical energy
(D) Chemical energy
Ans. (C)
9. Which of the following statement is false?
A totally colour blind person is—
(A) A monochromat
(B) Has only the light-dark system
(C) Also night-blind
(D) Has neither the yellow blue, system nor the red-green system
Ans. (C)
10. All of the following are eventual aspect of gestalt theory of perception except—
(A) Figure Ground perception
(B) Perceptual organisation
(C) Isomorphism
(D) Dual trace mechanism
(E) Field Force
Ans. (D)
11. The psychological correlate of frequency (of a sound wave) is—
(A) Timbre
(B) Loudness
(C) Quality
(D) Pitch
Ans. (D)
12. Which of the following statement is not correct about gestalt theory of perceptual organisation?
(A) Peripheral principles relates to characteristic of stimulus.
(B) Gestaltists have basically emphasized in perceptual organization the role of peripheral principles.
(C) Central principles of perceptual organization include meaning motivation, attitude, values, etc.
(D) Peripheral principles are also called principles of primitive organization
Ans. (B)
13. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II
List-I
(a) Long term memory
(b) Sensory memory
(c) Attention
(d) Short-term memory
List-II
(i) Chunking
(ii) Entry of information from external world
(iii) Information is stored after evaluation
(iv) Viewing people in a busy market
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (B)
14. The main Neurotransmitters are—
(i) Acetylcholine
(ii) Dopamine
(iii) Mescaline
(iv) Noradrenalin
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (D)
15. Match List-I with List-II to indicate which process is predominantly related to which
task—
List-I
(a) Multiple choice tests
(b) Listing the places related to Gandhi
(c) Sharing the story of a cinema
(d) Essay type test
List-II
(i) Reproduction
(ii) Reconstruction
(iii) Recall
(iv) Recognition
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (D)
16. Match List-I with List-II—
List-I
(a) Cognitive development
(b) Psychological development
(c) Contact comfort
(d) Post conventional reasoning
List-II
(i) Kohlberg
(ii) Piaget
(iii) Erickson
(iv) Harlow
(v) Gilligan
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (i) (iii) (v) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Ans. (C)
17. A preconceived assumption that the problem will be solved by means of a particular method or set of procedures is called—
(A) Functional set
(B) Rule set
(C) Operational set
(D) Mental set
Ans. (C)
18. Select the false statement—
(A) Intelligence is equal in all humans
(B) Intelligence and physical development both develop simultaneously upto a certain age
(C) Many factors contribute in formation of intelligence
(D) Intelligence develops throughout life
Ans. (D)
19. All of the following are the special features of 1986 version Standford Binet test of intelligence except—
(A) It has two equivalent forms like the L and M forms of 1937 version.
(B) More emphasis is given on verbal items.
(C) It has clever parts based on these levels of theoretical model of intelligence
(D) Mental age and I. Q. concepts are replaced by a new concept of SAS (standard age scores)
Ans. (A)
20. The concept of mental age was developed by—
(A) Binet and Standford
(B) Standford and Simon
(C) Simon and Binet
(D) Binet
Ans. (C)
21. The power to perform an acts, physical or mental, either before or after training is called—
(A) Trait
(B) Aptitude
(C) Attitude
(D) Ability
Ans. (D)
22. According to Binet, intelligence means the characteristics of an individual’s thought processes that enable him—
(A) To take and maintain a direction without becoming distracted
(B) To adopt means to ends
(C) To criticise his own attempts at problem solution
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
23. Which of the following correlation’s found between scores on intelligence test of various groups is not correct?
(A) Cousins — 60
(B) Identical twins (foster parents) — 72
(C) Fraternal twins (neutral parents) — 60
(D) Siblings brought up together — 47
Ans. (A)
24. Thurston’s test of primary mental abilities have factors—
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
Ans. (A)
25. The average person at age 16 has a mental age of—
(A) 16 year
(B) 14 year
(C) 15 year
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
UGC NET Solved Psychology Objective test
practice material for UGC NET Exam
1. If you have to develop a test for a new concept which is the best method of ensuring the validity of that test?
(i) Content
(ii) Empirical/Criterion-related
(iii) Convergent and discriminant
(iv) Factorial
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (B)
2. “The raw material delivered to the brain by the sense organs via the sensory nerves is used and interpreted by the individual in
accordance with his past experience and in furtherance of whatever activities, he may be engaged in at the moment.” The
statement is indicative of the—
(A) Psychology of perception
(B) Psychology of thinking
(C) Psychology of reasoning
(D) Psychology of nervous functioning
Ans. (A)
3. All of the following are principles of perceptual organization except—
(A) Principle of observation and experience
(B) Principle of similarity
(C) Principle of familiarity
(D) Principle of distance
Ans. (A)
4. Assertion (A): There is no relationship between language and thought.
Reason (R): Thought is possible without language.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (D)
5. Which of the following is not true?
(A) The cones are active only in day light vision
(B) The rods permit us to see only achromatic colours
(C) The cones permit us to see both achromatic and chromatic colours
(D) The cones permit us to see only chromatic colours (red, green, blue etc.)
Ans. (D)
6. A set of ideas that fit together to provide a perspective on some aspect of the world is
known as—
(A) Hypothesis
(B) Theory
(C) Law
(D) Variable
Ans. (B)
7. Assertion (A): In pattern recognition people take longer to differentiate between similar letters than dissimilar letters.
Reason (R): Similar letters have many similar features.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (B)
8. The auditory sense is sensitive to—
(A) Electromagnetic energy
(B) Electrical energy
(C) Mechanical energy
(D) Chemical energy
Ans. (C)
9. Which of the following statement is false?
A totally colour blind person is—
(A) A monochromat
(B) Has only the light-dark system
(C) Also night-blind
(D) Has neither the yellow blue, system nor the red-green system
Ans. (C)
10. All of the following are eventual aspect of gestalt theory of perception except—
(A) Figure Ground perception
(B) Perceptual organisation
(C) Isomorphism
(D) Dual trace mechanism
(E) Field Force
Ans. (D)
11. The psychological correlate of frequency (of a sound wave) is—
(A) Timbre
(B) Loudness
(C) Quality
(D) Pitch
Ans. (D)
12. Which of the following statement is not correct about gestalt theory of perceptual organisation?
(A) Peripheral principles relates to characteristic of stimulus.
(B) Gestaltists have basically emphasized in perceptual organization the role of peripheral principles.
(C) Central principles of perceptual organization include meaning motivation, attitude, values, etc.
(D) Peripheral principles are also called principles of primitive organization
Ans. (B)
13. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II
List-I
(a) Long term memory
(b) Sensory memory
(c) Attention
(d) Short-term memory
List-II
(i) Chunking
(ii) Entry of information from external world
(iii) Information is stored after evaluation
(iv) Viewing people in a busy market
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (B)
14. The main Neurotransmitters are—
(i) Acetylcholine
(ii) Dopamine
(iii) Mescaline
(iv) Noradrenalin
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (D)
15. Match List-I with List-II to indicate which process is predominantly related to which
task—
List-I
(a) Multiple choice tests
(b) Listing the places related to Gandhi
(c) Sharing the story of a cinema
(d) Essay type test
List-II
(i) Reproduction
(ii) Reconstruction
(iii) Recall
(iv) Recognition
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (D)
16. Match List-I with List-II—
List-I
(a) Cognitive development
(b) Psychological development
(c) Contact comfort
(d) Post conventional reasoning
List-II
(i) Kohlberg
(ii) Piaget
(iii) Erickson
(iv) Harlow
(v) Gilligan
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (i) (iii) (v) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Ans. (C)
17. A preconceived assumption that the problem will be solved by means of a particular method or set of procedures is called—
(A) Functional set
(B) Rule set
(C) Operational set
(D) Mental set
Ans. (C)
18. Select the false statement—
(A) Intelligence is equal in all humans
(B) Intelligence and physical development both develop simultaneously upto a certain age
(C) Many factors contribute in formation of intelligence
(D) Intelligence develops throughout life
Ans. (D)
19. All of the following are the special features of 1986 version Standford Binet test of intelligence except—
(A) It has two equivalent forms like the L and M forms of 1937 version.
(B) More emphasis is given on verbal items.
(C) It has clever parts based on these levels of theoretical model of intelligence
(D) Mental age and I. Q. concepts are replaced by a new concept of SAS (standard age scores)
Ans. (A)
20. The concept of mental age was developed by—
(A) Binet and Standford
(B) Standford and Simon
(C) Simon and Binet
(D) Binet
Ans. (C)
21. The power to perform an acts, physical or mental, either before or after training is called—
(A) Trait
(B) Aptitude
(C) Attitude
(D) Ability
Ans. (D)
22. According to Binet, intelligence means the characteristics of an individual’s thought processes that enable him—
(A) To take and maintain a direction without becoming distracted
(B) To adopt means to ends
(C) To criticise his own attempts at problem solution
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
23. Which of the following correlation’s found between scores on intelligence test of various groups is not correct?
(A) Cousins — 60
(B) Identical twins (foster parents) — 72
(C) Fraternal twins (neutral parents) — 60
(D) Siblings brought up together — 47
Ans. (A)
24. Thurston’s test of primary mental abilities have factors—
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
Ans. (A)
25. The average person at age 16 has a mental age of—
(A) 16 year
(B) 14 year
(C) 15 year
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
geometry mcq
geometry mcq
Geometry mcq test Free Online Exams
MCQ(s)::Plane Geometry
1. If AC and BD intersect at O such that AO = CO and BO = DO, then
(a) BC = AD
(b) BC AD and BC = AD
(c) BC AD
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
2. In any triangle the centroid divides the median in the ratio
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2: 1
(c) 3: 1
(d) 3: 2
Ans. (b)
3. If D is any point on the side BC of ∆ABC such that ∆ADB and ∆ADC are equal in
area, then
(a) AD is the median
(b) AD is the altitude
(c) AD is an angle bisector
(d) AD is any line
Ans. (a)
4. In a right angled triangle the square of the hypotenuse is twice the product of the
square of the other sides. Then the triangle is
(a) equilateral
(b) isosceles
(c) of s 30°, 60°, 90°
(d) of s 40°, 50°, 90°
Ans. (b)
5. If one angle of ∆ at is equal to the sum of the other two, the triangle is
(a) isosceles
(b) equilateral
(c) right angled
(d) ordinary
Ans. (c)
6. The sum of angles of a quadrilateral is
(a) 180°
(b) 360°
(c) 270°
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
7. In a right angled triangle ABC, AD is perpendicular to the hypotenuse BC then AD2 is
equal to
(a) AB . BD
(b) AC . DC
(c) BD . DC
(d) AB . AC
Ans. (c)
8. A triangle ABC stands on a rectangle BCDE and AF is a perpendicular from A to
DE. If AB = 6.5 m, CD = 5 m, AF = 7.5 m, then BC can’t be less than
(a) 6m
(b) 5m
(c) 4m
(d) 6.5 m
Ans. (c)
9. A circle has two equal chords AB and AC, chord AD bisects BC in E. If AC = 12 and
AE = 8cm, then the measure of AD is
(a) 24 cm
(b) 18.5 cm
(c) 18 cm
(d) 19 cm
Ans. (c)
10. If G is the centroid of ΔABC and the median AD is 12 cm, then the length of AG is
(a) 7cm
(b) 8cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans. (b)
11. H is the orthocentre of ΔABC and X, Y, Z are the mid points of AH, BH, CH, then
the point H is
(a) centroid of ΔXYZ
(b) orthocentre of ΔXYZ
(c) circumcentre of ΔXYZ
(d) incentre of ΔXYZ
Ans. (b)
12. The direct common tangents of two congruent circles are
(a) equal
(b) parallel
(c) parallel and equal
(d) parallel and unequal
Ans. (c)
13. Sum of the adjacent angles of a parallelogram is equal to
(a) 60°
(b) 90°
(c) 150°
(d) 180°
Ans. (d)
14. The opening between two lines is called
(a) angle
(b) point
(b) line
(d) transversal
Ans. (a)
15. A right angled triangle ABC is right angled at A and D is the mid point of BC. E is a point of trisection of AD, then the orthocentre of the ΔABC is at
(a) D
(b) E
(c) B
(d) A
Ans. (d)
Geometry mcq test Free Online Exams
MCQ(s)::Plane Geometry
1. If AC and BD intersect at O such that AO = CO and BO = DO, then
(a) BC = AD
(b) BC AD and BC = AD
(c) BC AD
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
2. In any triangle the centroid divides the median in the ratio
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2: 1
(c) 3: 1
(d) 3: 2
Ans. (b)
3. If D is any point on the side BC of ∆ABC such that ∆ADB and ∆ADC are equal in
area, then
(a) AD is the median
(b) AD is the altitude
(c) AD is an angle bisector
(d) AD is any line
Ans. (a)
4. In a right angled triangle the square of the hypotenuse is twice the product of the
square of the other sides. Then the triangle is
(a) equilateral
(b) isosceles
(c) of s 30°, 60°, 90°
(d) of s 40°, 50°, 90°
Ans. (b)
5. If one angle of ∆ at is equal to the sum of the other two, the triangle is
(a) isosceles
(b) equilateral
(c) right angled
(d) ordinary
Ans. (c)
6. The sum of angles of a quadrilateral is
(a) 180°
(b) 360°
(c) 270°
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
7. In a right angled triangle ABC, AD is perpendicular to the hypotenuse BC then AD2 is
equal to
(a) AB . BD
(b) AC . DC
(c) BD . DC
(d) AB . AC
Ans. (c)
8. A triangle ABC stands on a rectangle BCDE and AF is a perpendicular from A to
DE. If AB = 6.5 m, CD = 5 m, AF = 7.5 m, then BC can’t be less than
(a) 6m
(b) 5m
(c) 4m
(d) 6.5 m
Ans. (c)
9. A circle has two equal chords AB and AC, chord AD bisects BC in E. If AC = 12 and
AE = 8cm, then the measure of AD is
(a) 24 cm
(b) 18.5 cm
(c) 18 cm
(d) 19 cm
Ans. (c)
10. If G is the centroid of ΔABC and the median AD is 12 cm, then the length of AG is
(a) 7cm
(b) 8cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans. (b)
11. H is the orthocentre of ΔABC and X, Y, Z are the mid points of AH, BH, CH, then
the point H is
(a) centroid of ΔXYZ
(b) orthocentre of ΔXYZ
(c) circumcentre of ΔXYZ
(d) incentre of ΔXYZ
Ans. (b)
12. The direct common tangents of two congruent circles are
(a) equal
(b) parallel
(c) parallel and equal
(d) parallel and unequal
Ans. (c)
13. Sum of the adjacent angles of a parallelogram is equal to
(a) 60°
(b) 90°
(c) 150°
(d) 180°
Ans. (d)
14. The opening between two lines is called
(a) angle
(b) point
(b) line
(d) transversal
Ans. (a)
15. A right angled triangle ABC is right angled at A and D is the mid point of BC. E is a point of trisection of AD, then the orthocentre of the ΔABC is at
(a) D
(b) E
(c) B
(d) A
Ans. (d)
Wednesday, June 15, 2011
Indian History Sample Test 1857 revolt
Indian History Sample Test 1857 revolt
The Revolt of 1857 - History Exam
ndian History Questions:Indian Rebellion of 1857
1. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Lord Dalhousie’s po1y of annexation was responsible for the revolt of 1857
(B) Lord Dalhousie’s scheme to deprive the Mughal Emperor of his privileges was responsible for the revolt of 1857
(C) English education was responsible for the revolt of 1857
(D) The dissatisfaction of Indian soldiers in the company’s service was responsible for the revolt of 1857
Ans. (C)
2. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Bahadur Shah accepted the leadership .of the revolt of 1857 because; the British rulers had insulted him
(B) Bahadur Shah accepted the leadership of the revolt of 1857 because the British rulers had deprived him of his privileges
(C) Bahadur Shah accepted the leadership of the revolt of 1857 because he agreed with the aims of the rebels to drive the British cut of India
(D) Bahadur Shah accepted the leadership pf the revolt of 1857 because he wanted to establish Muslim rule in India
Ans. (D)
3. Before the revolt of 1857 broke out from hand to hand in the army. What did it signify?
(A) It signified that India belonged to Indians
(B) It signified the cultural unity of India
(C) It signified that the British rule was sultanate
(D) It signified the readiness of the Indian soldiers to join the revolt
Ans. (D)
4. What happened to Tantya Tope after the suppression of the revolt of 1857?
(A) He was captured and exiled to Europe
(B) He died fighting in a battle
(C) He was betrayed by a colleague, captured and hanged
(D) Nobody knows what happened to him
Ans. (C)
5. The leader of the revolt of 1857 in Bihar was —
(A) Maulavi Ahmed Shah
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Raja Tej Singh
(D) Kunwar Singh
Ans. (D)
6. The state which supported the revolt of 1857 was—
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Hyderabad
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
7. Who was Mangal Pandey?
(A) He was a minister of the ruler of Gwalior
(B) He was a Zamindar of Awadh
(C) He was a Brahmana soldier of the company posted at Dum Dum
(D) He was a rich merchant of Calcutta who financed the revolt of 1857
Ans. (C)
8 Mark the one who was not a leader in the revolt 1857?
(A) Kunwar Singh
(B) Bahadur Shah II
(C) Nana Saheb
(D) Man Singh
Ans. (D)
9. Mangal Pandey who mutined first single handed m 1857 belonged to—
(A) 19th NI
(B) 22nd NI
(C) 34th NI
(D) 38th NI
Ans. (C)
10. Which among the following places was not an important centre of revolt of 1857?
(A) Delhi
(B) Gwalior
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)
11. Which state is associated with the revolt of 1857?
(A) Satara
(B) Jaipur
(C) Lahore
(D) Jaiselmer
Ans. (A)
12. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Bareilly rising—1r16
(B) Cola outbreak—1831-32
(C) Ferazee disturbances—1833
(D) Moplah outbreak—1849
Ans. (C)
13. There were widespread risings in the year 1824 A.D. Which, among the following ‘communities were not a party to these rising?
(A) The Gujars
(B) The Jats
(C) The Kolis
(D) The Sikhs
(E) The Dasais of Kittur
Ans. (E)
14. Who among the following was not leader of the revolt of 1857?
(A) Nana Saheb and his commander Tantya Tope
(B) Rani Lakshmi Bai
(C) Kunwar Singh
(D) Khan Bahadur Khan
(E) Man Singh
Ans. (E)
15. In what way was the Revolt of 1857 unprecedented?
(A) It was widespread and accepted by all section of the people
(B) It shook the foundation of British Empire
(C) It was by the army
(D) It aroused the anger of Britishers
Ans. (A)
16. Which among the following were territorial gains of the English after the last Burmese War?
(A) Arakan, Tenassesim Yeh, Tabai and districts of Margi
(B) Assam and Cacher
(C) Manipur and Jaintia states
(D) Assam, Cacher and Manipur
Ans. (A)
17. Certain violent outbreaks occurred before 1857 due to arbitrary deposition of popular rulers’. Which among the following was not included in them?
(A) The rising at Sambalpur
(B) The rising at Satara
(C) The rising at Jaitpur
(D) The rising at Sagar
Ans. (D)
18. Mark the place where the second Anglo-Sikh war did not take place—
(A) Ramnagar
(B) Chillianwala
(C) Gujarat
(D) Sobraon
Ans. (D)
19. The 1st Anglo-Afghan war started in—
(A) 1839A.D.
(B) 1840A.D.
(C) 1841A.D.
(D) 1842A.D.
Ans. (A)
20. After the Revolt of 1857 the British recruited Indian soldiers mostly from the—
(A) Brahmins of U.P. and Bihar
(B) Bengalis and Oriyas from the east
(C) Gorkhas, Sikhs and Punjabis in the north
(D) Madras Presidency in the south and Marathas from the west
Ans. (C)
21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List I List II
(Tribes who revolted against the British) (Year of revolt)
(a) Khonds 1. 1820
(b) Santhals 2. 1846
(c) Kols 3. 1855
(d) Mundas 4. 1895
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (B)
22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the, codes given below the lists—
List I List II
(Nationalist Authors) (Works)
(a) Krishanaji Prabhakar Khadilkar 1. Jhansi Ki Rani
(b) Subhadra Kumari Chauhan 2. Kichaka Vadh
(c) Saadat Husan Munto 3. Kali Salwar
(d) Vallathol Narayana Menon 4. Enpe Gurunathan
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (A)
23. The uprising of 1857 was described as the first Indian war of independence by—
(A) S.N.Sen
(B) R. C. Mazumdar
(C) B. G. Tilak
(D) V. D. Savarkar
Ans. (D)
24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List I List II
(a) Revolt of the Bhils 1. 1855-56
(b) Revolt of the Gujars 2. 1817-18
(c) Kolhapur Rising 3. 1839-45
(d) Santhal Rebellion 4. 1824
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (C)
25. Who among the following leaders of the Revolt of 1857 wrote to the French emperor “The acts of injustice and perjury of the English government blaze on all sides like the rays of the sun”?
(A) Nana Saheb
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Tantya Tope
(D) Birjis Qadr
Ans. (A)
The Revolt of 1857 - History Exam
ndian History Questions:Indian Rebellion of 1857
1. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Lord Dalhousie’s po1y of annexation was responsible for the revolt of 1857
(B) Lord Dalhousie’s scheme to deprive the Mughal Emperor of his privileges was responsible for the revolt of 1857
(C) English education was responsible for the revolt of 1857
(D) The dissatisfaction of Indian soldiers in the company’s service was responsible for the revolt of 1857
Ans. (C)
2. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Bahadur Shah accepted the leadership .of the revolt of 1857 because; the British rulers had insulted him
(B) Bahadur Shah accepted the leadership of the revolt of 1857 because the British rulers had deprived him of his privileges
(C) Bahadur Shah accepted the leadership of the revolt of 1857 because he agreed with the aims of the rebels to drive the British cut of India
(D) Bahadur Shah accepted the leadership pf the revolt of 1857 because he wanted to establish Muslim rule in India
Ans. (D)
3. Before the revolt of 1857 broke out from hand to hand in the army. What did it signify?
(A) It signified that India belonged to Indians
(B) It signified the cultural unity of India
(C) It signified that the British rule was sultanate
(D) It signified the readiness of the Indian soldiers to join the revolt
Ans. (D)
4. What happened to Tantya Tope after the suppression of the revolt of 1857?
(A) He was captured and exiled to Europe
(B) He died fighting in a battle
(C) He was betrayed by a colleague, captured and hanged
(D) Nobody knows what happened to him
Ans. (C)
5. The leader of the revolt of 1857 in Bihar was —
(A) Maulavi Ahmed Shah
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Raja Tej Singh
(D) Kunwar Singh
Ans. (D)
6. The state which supported the revolt of 1857 was—
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Hyderabad
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
7. Who was Mangal Pandey?
(A) He was a minister of the ruler of Gwalior
(B) He was a Zamindar of Awadh
(C) He was a Brahmana soldier of the company posted at Dum Dum
(D) He was a rich merchant of Calcutta who financed the revolt of 1857
Ans. (C)
8 Mark the one who was not a leader in the revolt 1857?
(A) Kunwar Singh
(B) Bahadur Shah II
(C) Nana Saheb
(D) Man Singh
Ans. (D)
9. Mangal Pandey who mutined first single handed m 1857 belonged to—
(A) 19th NI
(B) 22nd NI
(C) 34th NI
(D) 38th NI
Ans. (C)
10. Which among the following places was not an important centre of revolt of 1857?
(A) Delhi
(B) Gwalior
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)
11. Which state is associated with the revolt of 1857?
(A) Satara
(B) Jaipur
(C) Lahore
(D) Jaiselmer
Ans. (A)
12. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Bareilly rising—1r16
(B) Cola outbreak—1831-32
(C) Ferazee disturbances—1833
(D) Moplah outbreak—1849
Ans. (C)
13. There were widespread risings in the year 1824 A.D. Which, among the following ‘communities were not a party to these rising?
(A) The Gujars
(B) The Jats
(C) The Kolis
(D) The Sikhs
(E) The Dasais of Kittur
Ans. (E)
14. Who among the following was not leader of the revolt of 1857?
(A) Nana Saheb and his commander Tantya Tope
(B) Rani Lakshmi Bai
(C) Kunwar Singh
(D) Khan Bahadur Khan
(E) Man Singh
Ans. (E)
15. In what way was the Revolt of 1857 unprecedented?
(A) It was widespread and accepted by all section of the people
(B) It shook the foundation of British Empire
(C) It was by the army
(D) It aroused the anger of Britishers
Ans. (A)
16. Which among the following were territorial gains of the English after the last Burmese War?
(A) Arakan, Tenassesim Yeh, Tabai and districts of Margi
(B) Assam and Cacher
(C) Manipur and Jaintia states
(D) Assam, Cacher and Manipur
Ans. (A)
17. Certain violent outbreaks occurred before 1857 due to arbitrary deposition of popular rulers’. Which among the following was not included in them?
(A) The rising at Sambalpur
(B) The rising at Satara
(C) The rising at Jaitpur
(D) The rising at Sagar
Ans. (D)
18. Mark the place where the second Anglo-Sikh war did not take place—
(A) Ramnagar
(B) Chillianwala
(C) Gujarat
(D) Sobraon
Ans. (D)
19. The 1st Anglo-Afghan war started in—
(A) 1839A.D.
(B) 1840A.D.
(C) 1841A.D.
(D) 1842A.D.
Ans. (A)
20. After the Revolt of 1857 the British recruited Indian soldiers mostly from the—
(A) Brahmins of U.P. and Bihar
(B) Bengalis and Oriyas from the east
(C) Gorkhas, Sikhs and Punjabis in the north
(D) Madras Presidency in the south and Marathas from the west
Ans. (C)
21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List I List II
(Tribes who revolted against the British) (Year of revolt)
(a) Khonds 1. 1820
(b) Santhals 2. 1846
(c) Kols 3. 1855
(d) Mundas 4. 1895
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (B)
22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the, codes given below the lists—
List I List II
(Nationalist Authors) (Works)
(a) Krishanaji Prabhakar Khadilkar 1. Jhansi Ki Rani
(b) Subhadra Kumari Chauhan 2. Kichaka Vadh
(c) Saadat Husan Munto 3. Kali Salwar
(d) Vallathol Narayana Menon 4. Enpe Gurunathan
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (A)
23. The uprising of 1857 was described as the first Indian war of independence by—
(A) S.N.Sen
(B) R. C. Mazumdar
(C) B. G. Tilak
(D) V. D. Savarkar
Ans. (D)
24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List I List II
(a) Revolt of the Bhils 1. 1855-56
(b) Revolt of the Gujars 2. 1817-18
(c) Kolhapur Rising 3. 1839-45
(d) Santhal Rebellion 4. 1824
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (C)
25. Who among the following leaders of the Revolt of 1857 wrote to the French emperor “The acts of injustice and perjury of the English government blaze on all sides like the rays of the sun”?
(A) Nana Saheb
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Tantya Tope
(D) Birjis Qadr
Ans. (A)
Friday, June 3, 2011
Geometry objective Questions Fully Solved For Exams
Geometry objective Questions Fully Solved For Exams
Geometry objective test Free Online Exams preperation help
Geometry Multiple Choice Practice Questions
1. Two circles are congruent if and only if they have equal
(a) chords
(c) shapes
(b) tangents
(d) radii
Ans. (d)
2. If two medians of a triangle are equal in length, then the triangle is
(a) right angled but not isosceles
(b) isosceles but not right angle
(c) right angled isosceles
(d) equilateral
Ans. (b)
3. The sum of the exterior angles of a hexagon is
(a) 360°
(b) 540°
(c) 720°
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
4. The sides of a triangle are 5cm, 6cm and 7cm. One more ∆ is formed by joining the
mid points of the sides. The perimeter of the second ∆ is
(a) 18 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 6cm
Ans. (c)
5. The sum of all the angles of a pentagon is
(a) 360°
(b) 540°
(c) 720°
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
6. The angle which is twice its supplement is
(a) 120°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 30°
Ans. (a)
7. The sum of the acute angles of an obtuse triangle is 70° and their difference is 10°.
The largest angle is
(a) 110°
(b) 105°
(c) 100°
(d) 95°
Ans. (a)
8. The angle which is one fifth of its complement
(a) 15°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
Ans. (a)
9. The angles of a triangle, in ascending order, are x, y, z and y – x = z – y = 100. The
smallest angle is
(a) 40°
(b) 60°
(c) 50°
(d) 70°
Ans. (c)
10. If two parallel lines are intersected by a transverse line, then the bisectors of the
interior angles forms a
(a) square
(b) rectangle
(c) parallelogram
(d) trapezium
Ans. (b)
11. If the angle in a major segment is x and in a minor segment is y, then
(a) x = y
(b) x > y
(c) x + y = 180°
(d) x < y
Ans. (d)
12. In a regular polygon, each exterior angle is twice the interior angle, then the number
of sides will be
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
13. The number of sides of a regular polygon, if each of its interior angles is 135°, is
given by
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans. (c)
14. The ratio of the sides of two regular polygons is 1: 2 and their interior angles is 3: 4,
then the number of sides in each polygon is
(a) 5, 10
(b) 9, 12
(c) 10, 5
(d) 5, 12
Ans. (a)
15. Any cyclic parallelogram is a
(a) rectangle
(b) rhombus
(c) trapezium
(d) square
Ans. (a)
16. If two medians of a triangle are equal, triangle is
(a) right angled
(b) isosceles
(c) equilateral
(d) scalene
Ans. (b)
17. If the bases of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2 : 3, then their areas are in the
ratio of
(a) 2: 3
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 4 : 9
(d) 9 : 4
Ans. (c)
18. If the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 4 :6 : 7, then the
(a) triangle is obtuse angled
(b) triangle is acute angled
(c) triangle is right angled
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
19. In an equilateral triangle, the incentre, the orthocentre and the centroid are
(a) coincident
(b) collinear
(c) concyclic
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
20. A circle is entirely in another circle. It is possible to draw
(a) only one common tangent
(b) two common tangents
(c) common tangent
(d) infinite number of tangents
Ans. (c)
21. A quadrilateral can be drawn, if the measures of its
(a) four sides are given
(b) three sides and a diagonal are given
(c) four sides and one angle are given
(d) four angles and one side are given
Ans. (c)
22. The orthocentre of an obtuse angled triangle lies
(a) outside the triangle
(b) inside the triangle
(c) on the smallest side of the triangle
(d) on the greatest side of the triangle
Ans. (a)
23. The angles of a pentagon in degrees are x, x +20, x + 40, x + 60 and x + 80, then the
smallest angle of the pentagon is
(a) 50°
(b) 68°
(c) 78°
(d) 85°
Ans. (b)
24. Each interior angle of a regular polygon lies between 136° and 142°, then the number
of sides of the polygon is
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans. (b)
25. In an equiangular triangle incentre, circumcentre and orthocentre are
(a) collinear
(b) concyclic
(c) coincident
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
Geometry objective test Free Online Exams preperation help
Geometry Multiple Choice Practice Questions
1. Two circles are congruent if and only if they have equal
(a) chords
(c) shapes
(b) tangents
(d) radii
Ans. (d)
2. If two medians of a triangle are equal in length, then the triangle is
(a) right angled but not isosceles
(b) isosceles but not right angle
(c) right angled isosceles
(d) equilateral
Ans. (b)
3. The sum of the exterior angles of a hexagon is
(a) 360°
(b) 540°
(c) 720°
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
4. The sides of a triangle are 5cm, 6cm and 7cm. One more ∆ is formed by joining the
mid points of the sides. The perimeter of the second ∆ is
(a) 18 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 6cm
Ans. (c)
5. The sum of all the angles of a pentagon is
(a) 360°
(b) 540°
(c) 720°
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
6. The angle which is twice its supplement is
(a) 120°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 30°
Ans. (a)
7. The sum of the acute angles of an obtuse triangle is 70° and their difference is 10°.
The largest angle is
(a) 110°
(b) 105°
(c) 100°
(d) 95°
Ans. (a)
8. The angle which is one fifth of its complement
(a) 15°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
Ans. (a)
9. The angles of a triangle, in ascending order, are x, y, z and y – x = z – y = 100. The
smallest angle is
(a) 40°
(b) 60°
(c) 50°
(d) 70°
Ans. (c)
10. If two parallel lines are intersected by a transverse line, then the bisectors of the
interior angles forms a
(a) square
(b) rectangle
(c) parallelogram
(d) trapezium
Ans. (b)
11. If the angle in a major segment is x and in a minor segment is y, then
(a) x = y
(b) x > y
(c) x + y = 180°
(d) x < y
Ans. (d)
12. In a regular polygon, each exterior angle is twice the interior angle, then the number
of sides will be
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
13. The number of sides of a regular polygon, if each of its interior angles is 135°, is
given by
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans. (c)
14. The ratio of the sides of two regular polygons is 1: 2 and their interior angles is 3: 4,
then the number of sides in each polygon is
(a) 5, 10
(b) 9, 12
(c) 10, 5
(d) 5, 12
Ans. (a)
15. Any cyclic parallelogram is a
(a) rectangle
(b) rhombus
(c) trapezium
(d) square
Ans. (a)
16. If two medians of a triangle are equal, triangle is
(a) right angled
(b) isosceles
(c) equilateral
(d) scalene
Ans. (b)
17. If the bases of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2 : 3, then their areas are in the
ratio of
(a) 2: 3
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 4 : 9
(d) 9 : 4
Ans. (c)
18. If the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 4 :6 : 7, then the
(a) triangle is obtuse angled
(b) triangle is acute angled
(c) triangle is right angled
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
19. In an equilateral triangle, the incentre, the orthocentre and the centroid are
(a) coincident
(b) collinear
(c) concyclic
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
20. A circle is entirely in another circle. It is possible to draw
(a) only one common tangent
(b) two common tangents
(c) common tangent
(d) infinite number of tangents
Ans. (c)
21. A quadrilateral can be drawn, if the measures of its
(a) four sides are given
(b) three sides and a diagonal are given
(c) four sides and one angle are given
(d) four angles and one side are given
Ans. (c)
22. The orthocentre of an obtuse angled triangle lies
(a) outside the triangle
(b) inside the triangle
(c) on the smallest side of the triangle
(d) on the greatest side of the triangle
Ans. (a)
23. The angles of a pentagon in degrees are x, x +20, x + 40, x + 60 and x + 80, then the
smallest angle of the pentagon is
(a) 50°
(b) 68°
(c) 78°
(d) 85°
Ans. (b)
24. Each interior angle of a regular polygon lies between 136° and 142°, then the number
of sides of the polygon is
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans. (b)
25. In an equiangular triangle incentre, circumcentre and orthocentre are
(a) collinear
(b) concyclic
(c) coincident
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
Corporation Bank Clerk (Single Window Operator) Practice paper English
Corporation Bank Clerk (Single Window Operator) Practice paper English
Model test Corporation Bank Single Window Operator (Clerk) Cadre :English
English MCQ for Job Exams
Directions : Read the following passage and answer the following questions Nos. 1 to 4.
The great Acharyas have said that having discovered a great goal, surrender yourself to that goal and towards it drawing your4nspiration from that goal whereby you will get a new column of energy. Do not allow this energy to be dissipated in the futile memories of the past regrets or failures, excitement of the present. And thus bring that entire energy focused into activity. That is the highest creative action in the world outside. Thereby the individual who is still now considered most inefficient finds his way to the highest achievement and success.
This is said very easily in a second. But in order to train our mind to this attitude it needs considerable training because we have already trained the mind wrongly to such an extent that we have become perfect in imperfections. Not knowing the art of action, we have been master artists in doing the wrong thing, the totality of activity will bring the country to a wrong end indeed.
If each one is given a car, to achieve an ideal socialistic pattern and nobody knowns driving but everybody starts driving, what would be the condition on the road? Everybody has equal right on the public road. Then each car must necessarily dash against the other and there is bound to be a jumble.
This seems to be a very apt pattern of life that we are heading to. Every one of us is a vehicle. We know how to go forward. The point is, intellect is very powerful and everyone is driving but nobody seems to know how to control the mental energy and direct it properly or guide it to the proper destination.
1. What is the effect of wrong training of the mind?
(A) Becoming perfect in all aspects
(B) Becoming master artists
(C) Taking the country to the wrong destination
(D) Carrying on activities without knowing how to control mental energy
Ans:- (D )
2. The source of energy according to the author is (A) highest creative action
(B) Proper training of mind
(C) Inspiration from past events
(D) stimulation obtained from a set goal
Ans:- ( D )
3. The author’s main focus in the passage is
(A) finding out worthy goal in fife
(B) regulation of energy in proper channel
(C) struggle for equal rights
(D) car accidents for lack of driving skill
Ans:- (B )
4. The country may perish because of
(A) failures of past acts
(B) wrong deeds performed without proper knowledge
(C) complete surrender to any one goal
(D) directing mental energy to right destination.
Ans:- (B )
Directions : Read the following passage and answer the questions Nos. 5 to 8.
Far away on a lonely island, there lived a wise old man and his daughter. The man was Jatashankar, a magician. The daughter was Roopmati, a lovely young girl of sixteen. They lived in a cave one half of which was used for Jatashankar’s study. It was here that he kept his books and studied magic most of the day. He knew so much of the art of magic that he was able to command the spirits of the island to obey him. These spirits obeyed him gladly because they were grateful to him for having rescued them from the power of the wicked Ugranarayan, who had treated them cruelly. Indeed, at the time of his death, most of them were imprisoned iif the trunks of trees. Jatashankar had freed them and so they served him willingly as their master.
The chief of these gentle spirits was Virdhaval, a lively little creature who was not only devoted to his master but also full of mischief. To him Jatashankar entrusted his most important tasks. One of these was to watch Moodhamati, a monster, whom Jatashankar had found in woods Moodhamati, the son of Ugranarayan, was more like evil nature, inherited from his mother, Ugramati, had prevented this. Jatashankar and disobedient ancneeded careful watching but Virdhavaj kept him in order and often played mischievous tricks on him. He would pinch and push the monster or block his patch and frighten him.
5. Ugranarayan treated cruelly to
(A) Moodhamati
(B) Roopmati
(C) Jatashankar
(D) Virdhaval
Ans:- ( D )
6. Moodhamati could not be made a sane human being because
(A) he disliked the training given by Jatashankar
(B) he was lazy and disobedient
(C) he possessed sinful nature
(D) Vidhaval did not allow hum to become a human being
Ans:- (B )
7. Jatashankar had a comiriand aver the spirits of the island because
(A) he was a great musician
(B) he saved them from Ugranarayan
(C) he was their leader
(D) he tried to make Moodhumati a human being
Ans:- (A )
8. Which of the following statement is true in the context of the passage?
(A) Virdhaval kept the spirits under control
(B) Ugramati was Roopmati’s mother
(C) Jatashankar entrusted important work to Virdhaval
(D) Ugramati and Moodhamati are evil spirits
Ans:- ( C )
Directions—(Q. 9—13): In each of these questions, the sentences have been given in Active Passive Voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate your correct response.
9. He likes people to call him Sir.
(A) He likes to be called Sir by people.
(B) He likes to be call Sir by people.
(C) He likes people who call him Sir.
(D) To call him Sir is liked by people.
Ans. (A)
10. We added up the money and found that it was correct.
(A) The money was added up and found to be correct.
(B) Correct it was found and the money was added up.
(C) The money added up by us and it was correctly found.
(D) The money added up by us found it was correct.
Ans. (A)
11. The telegraph wires have been cut.
(A) Someone has been cut the telegraph wires.
(B) No One has cut the telegraph wires.
(C) The telegraph wires have cut someone.
(D) Someone has cut the telegraph wires.
Ans. (D)
12. Will she tell us the truth?
(A) Is the truth told to us by her?
(B) The truth will be told to us by her.
(C) Will the truth be told to us by her?
(D) Will the truth be told us by her?
Ans. (D)
13. The boy has rung the bell.
(A) The bell has been rung by the boy.
(B) The bell war being rung by the boy.
(C) The bell was rung by the boy.
(D) The bell has been being rung by the boy.
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 14—23): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given and indicate your choice for the correct answer. The educational institutions established by the British and the Christian missionaries were primarily designed to propagate and promote the English language and western (14). Their aim was also to produce such (15) who could man the lower levels of (16) British administrative hierarchy and remain ever loyal (17) the British rulers. The British educational policy (18) with eminent success in the matter of (19) its objectives. The majority of people (20) middle classes who went to these educational (21), did acquire some knowledge and skills which (22) sufficient enough to work as babus in these (23) offices.
14. (A) range
(B) trade
(C) culture
(D) pride
Ans. (C)
15. (A) Indians
(B) North-Indians
(C) South-Indians
(D) Rajputs
Ans. (A)
16. (A) the
(B) a
(C) an
(D) now
Ans. (A)
17. (A) of
(B) with
(C) for
(D) to
Ans. (D)
18. (A) served
(B) met
(C) planned
(D) started
Ans. (B)
19. (A) performing
(B) conducting
(C) achieving
(D) changing
Ans. (C)
20. (A) with
(B) in
(C) of
(D) from
Ans. (D)
21. (A) departments
(B) institutions
(C) concerns
(D) projects
Ans. (B)
22. (A) was
(B) had
(C) were
(D) have
Ans. (A)
23. (A) rural
(B) revenue
(C) private
(D) government
Ans. (D)
Directions—(Q. 24—29): In each of the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four ,and indicate your choice for the correct answer.
24. As he proved inefficient the company……….. him
(A) rejected
(B) ejected
(C) evicted
(D) expelled
Ans. (D)
25. Most people are influenced by…………. advertisements and tend to believe the claims made about the product.
(A) colourful
(B) aggressive
(C) efficient
(D) vigorous
Ans. (A)
26. The cost of……………. is rising rapidly in this city.
(A) being
(B) existing
(C) surviving
(D) living
Ans. (D)
27. The meeting is.. .... because the funds have not arrived.
(A) put in
(B) put off
(C) put away
(D) put out
Ans. (B)
28. It is………. if we can organize another exam this month.
(A) doubtful
(B) unlikely
(C) impractical
(D) unsure
Ans. (A)
29. She was relieved to hear from the doctor that the tumour was not malignant; it was……
(A) exposed
(B) benign
(C) discovered
(D)) sizeable
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 30—31): In each of the following questions out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given bold word—
30. INVARIABLY
(A) Intensely
(B) Alarmingly
(C) Unfailingly
(D) Freely
Ans. (C)
31. HOMAGE
(A) Excessive humility
(B) Poverty
(C) Insincere flattery
(D) Respect or deference
Ans. (D)
Directions: Identify the grammatically wrong sentence from the following—
32. (A) He was hung for murder.
(B) I offered him a chair to sit on.
(C) Let’s not intrude on his privacy.
(D) You should comply with the rules.
Ans. (A)
In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct Speech. Select the one alternative out of the given alternatives which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect Speech—
33. He said “I saw a book here.”
(A) He said that he saw a book here.
(B) He said that he saw a book there.
(D) He said that he seen a book here.
(D) He said that he seen a book there.
Ans. (B)
Directions: In each of the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence.
34. Custom of having many wives—
(A) Polyandry
(B) Polygamy
(C) Matrimony
(D) Calibacy
Ans. (B)
35. Person who has long experience—
(A) Stalwart
(B) Pedantic
(C) Intinerant
(D) Veteran
Ans. (D)
Model test Corporation Bank Single Window Operator (Clerk) Cadre :English
English MCQ for Job Exams
Directions : Read the following passage and answer the following questions Nos. 1 to 4.
The great Acharyas have said that having discovered a great goal, surrender yourself to that goal and towards it drawing your4nspiration from that goal whereby you will get a new column of energy. Do not allow this energy to be dissipated in the futile memories of the past regrets or failures, excitement of the present. And thus bring that entire energy focused into activity. That is the highest creative action in the world outside. Thereby the individual who is still now considered most inefficient finds his way to the highest achievement and success.
This is said very easily in a second. But in order to train our mind to this attitude it needs considerable training because we have already trained the mind wrongly to such an extent that we have become perfect in imperfections. Not knowing the art of action, we have been master artists in doing the wrong thing, the totality of activity will bring the country to a wrong end indeed.
If each one is given a car, to achieve an ideal socialistic pattern and nobody knowns driving but everybody starts driving, what would be the condition on the road? Everybody has equal right on the public road. Then each car must necessarily dash against the other and there is bound to be a jumble.
This seems to be a very apt pattern of life that we are heading to. Every one of us is a vehicle. We know how to go forward. The point is, intellect is very powerful and everyone is driving but nobody seems to know how to control the mental energy and direct it properly or guide it to the proper destination.
1. What is the effect of wrong training of the mind?
(A) Becoming perfect in all aspects
(B) Becoming master artists
(C) Taking the country to the wrong destination
(D) Carrying on activities without knowing how to control mental energy
Ans:- (D )
2. The source of energy according to the author is (A) highest creative action
(B) Proper training of mind
(C) Inspiration from past events
(D) stimulation obtained from a set goal
Ans:- ( D )
3. The author’s main focus in the passage is
(A) finding out worthy goal in fife
(B) regulation of energy in proper channel
(C) struggle for equal rights
(D) car accidents for lack of driving skill
Ans:- (B )
4. The country may perish because of
(A) failures of past acts
(B) wrong deeds performed without proper knowledge
(C) complete surrender to any one goal
(D) directing mental energy to right destination.
Ans:- (B )
Directions : Read the following passage and answer the questions Nos. 5 to 8.
Far away on a lonely island, there lived a wise old man and his daughter. The man was Jatashankar, a magician. The daughter was Roopmati, a lovely young girl of sixteen. They lived in a cave one half of which was used for Jatashankar’s study. It was here that he kept his books and studied magic most of the day. He knew so much of the art of magic that he was able to command the spirits of the island to obey him. These spirits obeyed him gladly because they were grateful to him for having rescued them from the power of the wicked Ugranarayan, who had treated them cruelly. Indeed, at the time of his death, most of them were imprisoned iif the trunks of trees. Jatashankar had freed them and so they served him willingly as their master.
The chief of these gentle spirits was Virdhaval, a lively little creature who was not only devoted to his master but also full of mischief. To him Jatashankar entrusted his most important tasks. One of these was to watch Moodhamati, a monster, whom Jatashankar had found in woods Moodhamati, the son of Ugranarayan, was more like evil nature, inherited from his mother, Ugramati, had prevented this. Jatashankar and disobedient ancneeded careful watching but Virdhavaj kept him in order and often played mischievous tricks on him. He would pinch and push the monster or block his patch and frighten him.
5. Ugranarayan treated cruelly to
(A) Moodhamati
(B) Roopmati
(C) Jatashankar
(D) Virdhaval
Ans:- ( D )
6. Moodhamati could not be made a sane human being because
(A) he disliked the training given by Jatashankar
(B) he was lazy and disobedient
(C) he possessed sinful nature
(D) Vidhaval did not allow hum to become a human being
Ans:- (B )
7. Jatashankar had a comiriand aver the spirits of the island because
(A) he was a great musician
(B) he saved them from Ugranarayan
(C) he was their leader
(D) he tried to make Moodhumati a human being
Ans:- (A )
8. Which of the following statement is true in the context of the passage?
(A) Virdhaval kept the spirits under control
(B) Ugramati was Roopmati’s mother
(C) Jatashankar entrusted important work to Virdhaval
(D) Ugramati and Moodhamati are evil spirits
Ans:- ( C )
Directions—(Q. 9—13): In each of these questions, the sentences have been given in Active Passive Voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate your correct response.
9. He likes people to call him Sir.
(A) He likes to be called Sir by people.
(B) He likes to be call Sir by people.
(C) He likes people who call him Sir.
(D) To call him Sir is liked by people.
Ans. (A)
10. We added up the money and found that it was correct.
(A) The money was added up and found to be correct.
(B) Correct it was found and the money was added up.
(C) The money added up by us and it was correctly found.
(D) The money added up by us found it was correct.
Ans. (A)
11. The telegraph wires have been cut.
(A) Someone has been cut the telegraph wires.
(B) No One has cut the telegraph wires.
(C) The telegraph wires have cut someone.
(D) Someone has cut the telegraph wires.
Ans. (D)
12. Will she tell us the truth?
(A) Is the truth told to us by her?
(B) The truth will be told to us by her.
(C) Will the truth be told to us by her?
(D) Will the truth be told us by her?
Ans. (D)
13. The boy has rung the bell.
(A) The bell has been rung by the boy.
(B) The bell war being rung by the boy.
(C) The bell was rung by the boy.
(D) The bell has been being rung by the boy.
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 14—23): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given and indicate your choice for the correct answer. The educational institutions established by the British and the Christian missionaries were primarily designed to propagate and promote the English language and western (14). Their aim was also to produce such (15) who could man the lower levels of (16) British administrative hierarchy and remain ever loyal (17) the British rulers. The British educational policy (18) with eminent success in the matter of (19) its objectives. The majority of people (20) middle classes who went to these educational (21), did acquire some knowledge and skills which (22) sufficient enough to work as babus in these (23) offices.
14. (A) range
(B) trade
(C) culture
(D) pride
Ans. (C)
15. (A) Indians
(B) North-Indians
(C) South-Indians
(D) Rajputs
Ans. (A)
16. (A) the
(B) a
(C) an
(D) now
Ans. (A)
17. (A) of
(B) with
(C) for
(D) to
Ans. (D)
18. (A) served
(B) met
(C) planned
(D) started
Ans. (B)
19. (A) performing
(B) conducting
(C) achieving
(D) changing
Ans. (C)
20. (A) with
(B) in
(C) of
(D) from
Ans. (D)
21. (A) departments
(B) institutions
(C) concerns
(D) projects
Ans. (B)
22. (A) was
(B) had
(C) were
(D) have
Ans. (A)
23. (A) rural
(B) revenue
(C) private
(D) government
Ans. (D)
Directions—(Q. 24—29): In each of the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four ,and indicate your choice for the correct answer.
24. As he proved inefficient the company……….. him
(A) rejected
(B) ejected
(C) evicted
(D) expelled
Ans. (D)
25. Most people are influenced by…………. advertisements and tend to believe the claims made about the product.
(A) colourful
(B) aggressive
(C) efficient
(D) vigorous
Ans. (A)
26. The cost of……………. is rising rapidly in this city.
(A) being
(B) existing
(C) surviving
(D) living
Ans. (D)
27. The meeting is.. .... because the funds have not arrived.
(A) put in
(B) put off
(C) put away
(D) put out
Ans. (B)
28. It is………. if we can organize another exam this month.
(A) doubtful
(B) unlikely
(C) impractical
(D) unsure
Ans. (A)
29. She was relieved to hear from the doctor that the tumour was not malignant; it was……
(A) exposed
(B) benign
(C) discovered
(D)) sizeable
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 30—31): In each of the following questions out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given bold word—
30. INVARIABLY
(A) Intensely
(B) Alarmingly
(C) Unfailingly
(D) Freely
Ans. (C)
31. HOMAGE
(A) Excessive humility
(B) Poverty
(C) Insincere flattery
(D) Respect or deference
Ans. (D)
Directions: Identify the grammatically wrong sentence from the following—
32. (A) He was hung for murder.
(B) I offered him a chair to sit on.
(C) Let’s not intrude on his privacy.
(D) You should comply with the rules.
Ans. (A)
In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct Speech. Select the one alternative out of the given alternatives which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect Speech—
33. He said “I saw a book here.”
(A) He said that he saw a book here.
(B) He said that he saw a book there.
(D) He said that he seen a book here.
(D) He said that he seen a book there.
Ans. (B)
Directions: In each of the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence.
34. Custom of having many wives—
(A) Polyandry
(B) Polygamy
(C) Matrimony
(D) Calibacy
Ans. (B)
35. Person who has long experience—
(A) Stalwart
(B) Pedantic
(C) Intinerant
(D) Veteran
Ans. (D)
Wednesday, June 1, 2011
Psychology MCQ Quiz Test
Psychology MCQ Quiz Test
Multiple Choice Quiz Questions for Psychology
Sample Multiple Choice Exam Questions Psychology
1. Cognitive structures, according to Piaget’s theory, are all of the following except—
(A) Concept, beliefs, abilities or perceptual styles
(B) Physiological organs
(C) End results of continuous interrupting between maturation and experience
(D) Foundation stones of child’s intellectual development.
Ans. (B)
2. What is the example of thinking fan, car, radio as alive things by child?
(A) Inappropriate thinking
(B) Imaginative thinking
(C) Animism
(D) Egocentrism
Ans. (C)
3. Distinctive feature of a concept varying from concept to concept is known as—
(A) Concept value
(B) Concept attribute
(C) Concept quality
(D) Concept uniqueness
Ans. (B)
4. When the muscles necessary for speaking are paralyzed then—
(A) Thinking cannot go on
(B) Verbal thinking cannot go on
(C) Verbal thinking can go on
(D) Problem solving ability is hampered
Ans. (C)
5. The symbols used in thinking are—
(A) Images
(B) Languages
(C) Concept
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
6. A condition which is not favourable in reasoning is—
(A) Suggestion
(B) Interest
(C) Attention
(D) Motivation
Ans. (A)
7. The rules used in problem solving are—
(A) Algorithm
(B) Heuristics
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Theoreurs
Ans. (C)
8. According to Guilford creative ability is—
(A) Highly specified associated with particular subject matter or disciplines.
(B) Somewhat general which can be applied to a variety of tasks.
(C) A composite of primary mental abilities as found by Thurstone
(D) A developed mental capacity of highly abstract nature.
Ans. (B)
9. Which is not an attribute of the concept?
(A) Concreteness, observability and measurability
(B) Psychological meaningfulness
(C) Intrinsic, functional and formal properties.
(D) Abstractness, inclusiveness or generality
(E) Structure
Ans. (A)
10. Concept of food including bread, butter, milk etc. is based on—
(A) Formal properties
(B) Intrinsic properties
(C) Psychological meaningful property
(D) Functional properties
Ans. (D)
11. The best way of problem-solving is—
(A) Rigidity
(B) Chance
(C) Insight
(D) Trial and error
Ans. (C)
12. Which is not the structural attribute of the concept?
(A) Conjunctive
(B) Associative
(C) Disjunctive
(D) Relational
Ans. (B)
13. Religion is a—
(A) Conjunctive concept
(B) Disjunctive concept
(C) Relational concept
(D) Functional concept
Ans. (B)
14. Who had proposed the concept of goal gradient in problem solving?
(A) Kohler
(B) Hull
(C) Brich
(D) Wertheimer
Ans. (B)
15. All of the following factors influence concept formation except—
(A) Distinctiveness
(B) Manipulability of material
(C) Instructions
(D) Psychological variables
Ans. (D)
16. Who demonstrated that negative examples are of no use in concept learning?
(A) Smoke, 1932
(B) Hovland and Weiss, 1953
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
17. Which of the following is not a method or procedure of concept learning?
(A) Method of reception
(B) Method of recitation
(C) Method of selection
(D) Both method of reception and method of selection
Ans. (B)
18. All of the following are kind of reasoning except—
(A) Deductive reasoning
(B) Inductive reasoning
(C) Creative reasoning
(D) Evaluative reasoning
(E) Analogical reasoning
Ans. (C)
19. Three of the following mean same thing while one does not—
(A) Productive thinking
(B) Reproductive thinking
(C) Creative thinking
(D) Divergent thinking
Ans. (B)
20. A symbol has an/a—
(A) Universal meaning
(B) Innate meaning
(C) Natural meaning
(D) Arbitrary meaning
Ans. (D)
21. Creative thinking involves the phenomenon of—
(A) Deduction
(B) Insight
(C) Induction
(D) Decision making
Ans. (B)
22. Spoken language is—
(A) An ability found among all animals
(B) A species specific ability limited to Home Sapiens
(C) An ability confined only to the primates
(D) An innately determined mechanism in all animals
Ans. (B)
23. The concepts of taller, older, up-down, north-south etc. are examples of—
(A) Relational concepts
(B) Conjunctive concepts
(C) Disjunctive concepts
(D) Functional concepts
Ans. (A)
24. Most of creative thinking activity occurs during the stage of—
(A) Preparation
(B) Illumination
(C) Incubation
(D) Evaluation
Ans. (C)
25. The smallest unit of meaning in speech perception is—
(A) Morphemes
(B) Phonemes
(C) Words
(D) Syllables
Ans. (A)
Multiple Choice Quiz Questions for Psychology
Sample Multiple Choice Exam Questions Psychology
1. Cognitive structures, according to Piaget’s theory, are all of the following except—
(A) Concept, beliefs, abilities or perceptual styles
(B) Physiological organs
(C) End results of continuous interrupting between maturation and experience
(D) Foundation stones of child’s intellectual development.
Ans. (B)
2. What is the example of thinking fan, car, radio as alive things by child?
(A) Inappropriate thinking
(B) Imaginative thinking
(C) Animism
(D) Egocentrism
Ans. (C)
3. Distinctive feature of a concept varying from concept to concept is known as—
(A) Concept value
(B) Concept attribute
(C) Concept quality
(D) Concept uniqueness
Ans. (B)
4. When the muscles necessary for speaking are paralyzed then—
(A) Thinking cannot go on
(B) Verbal thinking cannot go on
(C) Verbal thinking can go on
(D) Problem solving ability is hampered
Ans. (C)
5. The symbols used in thinking are—
(A) Images
(B) Languages
(C) Concept
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
6. A condition which is not favourable in reasoning is—
(A) Suggestion
(B) Interest
(C) Attention
(D) Motivation
Ans. (A)
7. The rules used in problem solving are—
(A) Algorithm
(B) Heuristics
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Theoreurs
Ans. (C)
8. According to Guilford creative ability is—
(A) Highly specified associated with particular subject matter or disciplines.
(B) Somewhat general which can be applied to a variety of tasks.
(C) A composite of primary mental abilities as found by Thurstone
(D) A developed mental capacity of highly abstract nature.
Ans. (B)
9. Which is not an attribute of the concept?
(A) Concreteness, observability and measurability
(B) Psychological meaningfulness
(C) Intrinsic, functional and formal properties.
(D) Abstractness, inclusiveness or generality
(E) Structure
Ans. (A)
10. Concept of food including bread, butter, milk etc. is based on—
(A) Formal properties
(B) Intrinsic properties
(C) Psychological meaningful property
(D) Functional properties
Ans. (D)
11. The best way of problem-solving is—
(A) Rigidity
(B) Chance
(C) Insight
(D) Trial and error
Ans. (C)
12. Which is not the structural attribute of the concept?
(A) Conjunctive
(B) Associative
(C) Disjunctive
(D) Relational
Ans. (B)
13. Religion is a—
(A) Conjunctive concept
(B) Disjunctive concept
(C) Relational concept
(D) Functional concept
Ans. (B)
14. Who had proposed the concept of goal gradient in problem solving?
(A) Kohler
(B) Hull
(C) Brich
(D) Wertheimer
Ans. (B)
15. All of the following factors influence concept formation except—
(A) Distinctiveness
(B) Manipulability of material
(C) Instructions
(D) Psychological variables
Ans. (D)
16. Who demonstrated that negative examples are of no use in concept learning?
(A) Smoke, 1932
(B) Hovland and Weiss, 1953
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
17. Which of the following is not a method or procedure of concept learning?
(A) Method of reception
(B) Method of recitation
(C) Method of selection
(D) Both method of reception and method of selection
Ans. (B)
18. All of the following are kind of reasoning except—
(A) Deductive reasoning
(B) Inductive reasoning
(C) Creative reasoning
(D) Evaluative reasoning
(E) Analogical reasoning
Ans. (C)
19. Three of the following mean same thing while one does not—
(A) Productive thinking
(B) Reproductive thinking
(C) Creative thinking
(D) Divergent thinking
Ans. (B)
20. A symbol has an/a—
(A) Universal meaning
(B) Innate meaning
(C) Natural meaning
(D) Arbitrary meaning
Ans. (D)
21. Creative thinking involves the phenomenon of—
(A) Deduction
(B) Insight
(C) Induction
(D) Decision making
Ans. (B)
22. Spoken language is—
(A) An ability found among all animals
(B) A species specific ability limited to Home Sapiens
(C) An ability confined only to the primates
(D) An innately determined mechanism in all animals
Ans. (B)
23. The concepts of taller, older, up-down, north-south etc. are examples of—
(A) Relational concepts
(B) Conjunctive concepts
(C) Disjunctive concepts
(D) Functional concepts
Ans. (A)
24. Most of creative thinking activity occurs during the stage of—
(A) Preparation
(B) Illumination
(C) Incubation
(D) Evaluation
Ans. (C)
25. The smallest unit of meaning in speech perception is—
(A) Morphemes
(B) Phonemes
(C) Words
(D) Syllables
Ans. (A)
Free Online Psychology Objective test For UGC NET Exam
Free online Psychology Objective test For UGC NET Exam
UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper: Psychology
UGC NET Exam Model Papers Psychology
1. The concept of collective unconscious was formulated by—
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Anna Freud
(C) Jung
(D) Adler
Ans. (C)
2. Which of the following is not a concept used by Alder in the analysis of personality ?
(A) Unity of personality
(B) Ego-ideal
(C) Striving for success or perfection
(D) Social interest
Ans. (B)
3. Depending upon the three neurotic tendencies, according to Homey, children develop these types of personalities. Which of the following is not one of these?
(A) Complaint personality type
(B) Hostile personality type
(C) Detached personality type
(D) Nurturant personality type
Ans. (D)
4. A neurotic person, according to Homey, is characterised by all of the following except—
(A) A self-image, which is a false belief
(B) High emotional and social maturity
(C) A drive for world glory and neurotic pride
(D) Habit of making neurotic claims on others
Ans. (B)
5. Father seen as a rival, boys wanting to be ‘mummy’ little man’ is e expression given by Freud to—
(A) Electra complex
(B) Castration complex
(C) Phallic stage complex
(D) Oedipus complex
Ans. (D)
6. Electra complex as viewed by Freud means?
(A) Girl’s complex
(B) Boy’s complex
(C) Anxiety feelings of girls being deprived of male sexual organs.
(D) Boy’s feeling of anxiety due to a desire for incestuous relations with his mother.
Ans. (C)
7. What is meant by Z score?
(A) Distance between score and mean
(B) Distance between unit of standard deviation and mean
(C) Distance between unit of quartile and mean
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
8. Famous method for knowing reliability is—
(A) Rulon formula
(B) Flanagan formula
(C) Kuder-Richardson formula
(D) Split-half reliability method
Ans. (D)
9. To know reliability which of the following is not included?
(A) Test-retest method
(B) Split-half method
(C) Item-total correlation method
(D) Kuder-Richardson formula
Ans. (C)
10. Which of the following is a non-verbal performance test of general intelligence?
(A) Progressive Metrics Test by J.C.Ravens
(B) Cattell’s Culture-Fair tests
(C) Bhatia Battery Test General intelligence
(D) Pigeon Test congenial intelligence.
Ans. (C)
11. What is aptitude?
(A) The potentials of a person can be promoted through training
(B) Persons achievements after training
(C) Persons primary general ability is constant for life
(D) Capacity is common in all the mental activities of a person
Ans. (A)
12. Which is the main demerit of percentile norms—
(A) In these types percentage confusion is created
(B) Calculation of percentile norms is difficult
(C) Percentile norms are subjective norms
(D) Units of scale based on percentile norms is unequal
Ans. (D)
13. Which is not correct about inventories?
(A) They are instruments that attempt to ‘take stock’ to one or more aspects of an individual’s behavior rather than to measure in the usual sense
(B) They require subjects to perform at their maximum level
(C) They list items relating to the factor being appraised and request subjects to indicate preferences or check items that describe their behavior
(D) The response obtained on the inventories are evaluated to obtain descriptions of certain fundamental predispositions of the subjects
Ans. (B)
14. Difficulty level for an ideal item should be—
(A) .80
(C) 50
(B) .20
(D) .70
Ans. (C)
15. Reliability of test scores means—
(A) Self correlation of test
(B) Correlation with external criteria of a test
(C) Internal consistency of a test
(D) None of these.
Ans. (A)
16. Which of the following provide scores on ten standardized clinical scales so as to separate medical or psychiatric patients from normal ones?
(A) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
(B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
(C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
(D) Bender Gestalt Test
Ans. (C)
17. If the length of a test is increased through equivalent items then the—
(A) Reliability increases
(B) Validity increases
(C) True variance increases
(D) Error variance increases
Ans. (A)
18. AH ideal test has many characteristic. Which of these is not include in this?
(A) Self-correlation
(B) Validity
(C) Subjectivity
(D) Norms
Ans. (C)
19. Lowest common denominator of a psycho logical test is—
(A) Reliability
(B) Item
(C) Validity
(D) Norms
Ans. (B)
20. An attitude scale in which each item’s value is calculated by finding out the mean or median of the ratings of a large number of judges on an eleven point rating scale is known as—
(A) Bogardus type
(B) Guttman type
(C) Likert type
(D) Thilrstone type
Ans. (D)
21. Which is not included in criteria-related validity?
(A) Construct validity
(B) Concurrent validity
(C) Predictive validity
(D) All validity
Ans. (A)
22. For some specials reason Guilford and Fructure called split half reliability as—
(A) Delayed reliability
(B) On the spot reliability
(C) Internal consistency reliability
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
23. Three criteria used for evaluating appropriateness of the norms is called as (Three R’s) which is—
(A) Representativeness, Relevance, Recency
(B) Representativeness, Rational, Realism
(C) Realism, Reasonableness, Rationalization
(D) Realism, Reasonableness, Reliance
Ans. (A)
24. “As the individual matures, the bond with the past is broken” is told by—
(A) Cattell
(B) Allport
(C) Eysenck
(D) Guilford
Ans. (B)
25. The difference between Wechsler’s total scores on “Don’t Hold Test” and “Hold Tests” tells—
(A) About individual’s ability to succeed on manual jobs
(B) About pathology-related deficit it individual’s intelligence giving an index known as deterioration index or Di.
(C) About the quality aspect of individual’s intelligence
(D) About individual’s real intelligence as against the tested intelligence’.
Ans. (B)
UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper: Psychology
UGC NET Exam Model Papers Psychology
1. The concept of collective unconscious was formulated by—
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Anna Freud
(C) Jung
(D) Adler
Ans. (C)
2. Which of the following is not a concept used by Alder in the analysis of personality ?
(A) Unity of personality
(B) Ego-ideal
(C) Striving for success or perfection
(D) Social interest
Ans. (B)
3. Depending upon the three neurotic tendencies, according to Homey, children develop these types of personalities. Which of the following is not one of these?
(A) Complaint personality type
(B) Hostile personality type
(C) Detached personality type
(D) Nurturant personality type
Ans. (D)
4. A neurotic person, according to Homey, is characterised by all of the following except—
(A) A self-image, which is a false belief
(B) High emotional and social maturity
(C) A drive for world glory and neurotic pride
(D) Habit of making neurotic claims on others
Ans. (B)
5. Father seen as a rival, boys wanting to be ‘mummy’ little man’ is e expression given by Freud to—
(A) Electra complex
(B) Castration complex
(C) Phallic stage complex
(D) Oedipus complex
Ans. (D)
6. Electra complex as viewed by Freud means?
(A) Girl’s complex
(B) Boy’s complex
(C) Anxiety feelings of girls being deprived of male sexual organs.
(D) Boy’s feeling of anxiety due to a desire for incestuous relations with his mother.
Ans. (C)
7. What is meant by Z score?
(A) Distance between score and mean
(B) Distance between unit of standard deviation and mean
(C) Distance between unit of quartile and mean
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
8. Famous method for knowing reliability is—
(A) Rulon formula
(B) Flanagan formula
(C) Kuder-Richardson formula
(D) Split-half reliability method
Ans. (D)
9. To know reliability which of the following is not included?
(A) Test-retest method
(B) Split-half method
(C) Item-total correlation method
(D) Kuder-Richardson formula
Ans. (C)
10. Which of the following is a non-verbal performance test of general intelligence?
(A) Progressive Metrics Test by J.C.Ravens
(B) Cattell’s Culture-Fair tests
(C) Bhatia Battery Test General intelligence
(D) Pigeon Test congenial intelligence.
Ans. (C)
11. What is aptitude?
(A) The potentials of a person can be promoted through training
(B) Persons achievements after training
(C) Persons primary general ability is constant for life
(D) Capacity is common in all the mental activities of a person
Ans. (A)
12. Which is the main demerit of percentile norms—
(A) In these types percentage confusion is created
(B) Calculation of percentile norms is difficult
(C) Percentile norms are subjective norms
(D) Units of scale based on percentile norms is unequal
Ans. (D)
13. Which is not correct about inventories?
(A) They are instruments that attempt to ‘take stock’ to one or more aspects of an individual’s behavior rather than to measure in the usual sense
(B) They require subjects to perform at their maximum level
(C) They list items relating to the factor being appraised and request subjects to indicate preferences or check items that describe their behavior
(D) The response obtained on the inventories are evaluated to obtain descriptions of certain fundamental predispositions of the subjects
Ans. (B)
14. Difficulty level for an ideal item should be—
(A) .80
(C) 50
(B) .20
(D) .70
Ans. (C)
15. Reliability of test scores means—
(A) Self correlation of test
(B) Correlation with external criteria of a test
(C) Internal consistency of a test
(D) None of these.
Ans. (A)
16. Which of the following provide scores on ten standardized clinical scales so as to separate medical or psychiatric patients from normal ones?
(A) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
(B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
(C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
(D) Bender Gestalt Test
Ans. (C)
17. If the length of a test is increased through equivalent items then the—
(A) Reliability increases
(B) Validity increases
(C) True variance increases
(D) Error variance increases
Ans. (A)
18. AH ideal test has many characteristic. Which of these is not include in this?
(A) Self-correlation
(B) Validity
(C) Subjectivity
(D) Norms
Ans. (C)
19. Lowest common denominator of a psycho logical test is—
(A) Reliability
(B) Item
(C) Validity
(D) Norms
Ans. (B)
20. An attitude scale in which each item’s value is calculated by finding out the mean or median of the ratings of a large number of judges on an eleven point rating scale is known as—
(A) Bogardus type
(B) Guttman type
(C) Likert type
(D) Thilrstone type
Ans. (D)
21. Which is not included in criteria-related validity?
(A) Construct validity
(B) Concurrent validity
(C) Predictive validity
(D) All validity
Ans. (A)
22. For some specials reason Guilford and Fructure called split half reliability as—
(A) Delayed reliability
(B) On the spot reliability
(C) Internal consistency reliability
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
23. Three criteria used for evaluating appropriateness of the norms is called as (Three R’s) which is—
(A) Representativeness, Relevance, Recency
(B) Representativeness, Rational, Realism
(C) Realism, Reasonableness, Rationalization
(D) Realism, Reasonableness, Reliance
Ans. (A)
24. “As the individual matures, the bond with the past is broken” is told by—
(A) Cattell
(B) Allport
(C) Eysenck
(D) Guilford
Ans. (B)
25. The difference between Wechsler’s total scores on “Don’t Hold Test” and “Hold Tests” tells—
(A) About individual’s ability to succeed on manual jobs
(B) About pathology-related deficit it individual’s intelligence giving an index known as deterioration index or Di.
(C) About the quality aspect of individual’s intelligence
(D) About individual’s real intelligence as against the tested intelligence’.
Ans. (B)
English Objective Practice test for RPSC Headmaster Jobs
English Objective Practice test for RPSC Headmaster Jobs
Model Test Headmaster Jobs Recruitment by Rajasthan PSC (RPSC)
Practice Paper For Rpsc Exam English model Questions for headmaster exam
Directions for Questions 1 to 4: Read the following passage carefully and indicate the correct answer to the questions that follow the passage.
It is necessary to be clear about the definition and scope of the word science, and also its distinction from technology. Among the few powerful forces that hold the key to the future of mankind, science is perhaps the only important one that enjoys the unique position of being accepted by all practically without exception. Even in the case of those rare individuals who seem to entertain an antipathy to science, a casual conversation with them will bring out the fact that they are actually opposed not to science, but to technology which is concerned with the applications of the findings of science to satisfy diverse human needs.
By Science we mean today the fundamental knowledge of our world and its environment, the controlled and steady pursuit of that knowledge in all its aspects, without necessarily any desire to use it for public ends and by technology we refer to the numerous ways of pressing science into human service, the concentrated study of the ways in which things may he made or changed for human ends. To make a concrete differentiation between the two one can cite examples from the presently highly popular fields of nuclear science and technology. It is science here when measurements are made of the number and nature, of particles emitted in the break-up or fission of the nucleus of the heavy metallic element uranium. It is however, technology when this scientific knowledge is used either to design and build an atomic power station for generating electricity or to design and make an atomic bomb. As such, it is technology which acquires ethical overtones and can be labeled as moral or immoral. Science is neutral or amoral and can never W opposed to ethics or human welfare, although a scientist as a human being and technologist can be.
1. The writer is trying to
(A) Plead for a better attitude to science
(B) Suggest we apply science for public good
(C) Study ethical science rather than physical science
(D) Distinguish between Science and Technology
Ans. (A)
2. According to the writer, science
(A) Is the only force which determines the future of mankind
(B) Is one of the few determining forces of human destiny
(C) Will be the only concern of human beings in the future
(D) Is one of the many obstacles that block the progress of man
Ans. (B)
3. This passage is
(A) Rhetorical
(B) Descriptive
(C) Narrative
(D) Expository
Ans. (D)
4. The study of fission of the nucleus of uranium can be
(A) Thought of as an example of modern technology
(B) Thought of as an application or principles of electricity
(C) Thought of as having no moral implication
(D) Thought of as important to the welfare of all human beings
Ans. (C)
Directions for Questions 5 to 8: Read the following passage carefully and indicate the correct answer to the questions that follow the passage.
Yes, the sound appeal of music is a potent and primitive force, but you must not allow it to usurp a disproportionate share of your interest. The sensuous plane is an important one in music, a very important one, but it does not constitute the whole story.
There is no need to digress further on the sensuous plane. Its appeal to every normal human being is self-evident. There is, however, such a thing as becoming more sensitive to the different kinds of sound stuff as used by various composers. For, all composers do not use that stuff in the same way. Don’t get the idea that the value of music is commensurate with its sensuous appeal or that the loveliest sounding music is made both greatest composer. The point is that the sound element varies with each composer, that his usage of sound forms an integral part of his style arid must be taken into account when listening. The reader can see, therefore, that a more conscious approach is valuable even on this primary plane of music listening.
The second plane on which music exists is what I have called the expressive one. Here, immediately, we tread on controversial ground. Composers have a way of shying away from any discussion of music’s expressive side. Did not Stravinsky himself proclaim that his music was an object a thing with a life of its own and with no other meaning than its own purely musical existence? This intransient attitude of Stravinsky may be due to the fact that so many people have tried to read different meanings into so many pieces. Heaven knows it is difficult enough to say precisely what it is that a piece of music means, to say it definitely, to say it finally, so that everyone is satisfied with your explanation. But that should not lead one to other extreme of denying to music the right to be ‘expressive’.
My own belief is that all music has an expressive power, some more and some less, but that all music ha a certain meaning behind the notes and that meanings behind the notes constitutes after all, what the piece is saying, what the piece is about. This whole problem can be stated quite simply by asking, ‘Is there a meaning to music?’ My answer to that would be ‘Yes’. And ‘can you state in so many words what the meaning is?’ My answer to that is, ‘No’. Therein lies the difficulty,
5. Music has
(A) An intellectual appeal
(B) A sensuous appeal
(C) A moral appeal
(D) An irresistible appeal
Ans. (B)
6. Which of the following approximates to the meaning of “Allow it to usurp a disproportionate share of your interest”?
(a) Allow it to make you too much interested in it
(h) Does not allow any other thing to interest you
(c) Permit it to occupy you most of the time
(d) Allow it to result in a lukewarm interest
Ans. (A)
7. According to the writer the following may constitute the two planes on which music exists
(A) Sound and appeal
(B) Expression and meaning
(C) Sound and sensat4on
(D) Sound and expression
Ans. (D)
8. Stravinsky says that music has no other meaning than its own purely musical existence because
(A) Each musical niece has a different meaning
(B) People tried to read different meanings into a musical piece instead of enjoying music for its own sake
(C) Different people tried to criticize his musical piece
(D) If the musical notes are explained once, then every body was pleased
Ans. (B)
Fill In the Blanks with appropriate word
9. I have been ill ....... last Sunday.
(A) for
(B) since
(C) from
(D) by
Ans. (B)
10. They are very grateful …….. your kindness.
(A) towards
(B) to
(C) with
(D) for
Ans. (B)
11. …….. duty calls, we must obey.
(A) as
(B) while
(C) if
(D) when
Ans. (D)
12. The city was plunged ........ darkness due to sudden power failure.
(A) through
(B) to
(C) into
(D) under
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 13—15): In each of the following questions out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given bold word—
13. VIRTUALLY
(A) Righteously
(B) Practically
(C) Completely
(D) With virtue
Ans. (C)
14. SALIENT
(A) Silent
(B) Important
(C) Little
(D) Minor
Ans. (B)
15. IGNOBLE
(A) Useless
(B) Base
(C) Worthless
(D) lmpure
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 16—18): In each of the following questions, choose the bold word opposite.
16. PAUCITY
(A) Surplus
(B) Scarcity
(C) Presence
(D) Richness
Ans. (A)
17. ABDICATE
(A) Claim
(B) Snatch
(C) Plunder
(D) Seize
Ans. (A)
18. SALVAGE
(A) Outfit
(B) Lose
(C) Burn
(D) Remove
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 19—21): In each of the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence
19. One who always runs away from danger—
(A) Escapist
(B) Timid
(C) Coward
(D) Shirker
Ans. (B)
20. The study of ancient societies—
(A) History
(B) Anthropology
(C) Ethnology
(D) Archaeology
Ans. (D)
21. Office or post with no work but high pay—
(A) Honorary
(B) Sinecure
(C) Gratis
(D) Ex-officio
Ans. (A)
Directions Choose the most appropriate ‘one word substitute’ out of the four choices given under each
22. A process involving too much official formality—
(A) Nepotism
(B) Red-tapism
(C) Diplomacy
(D) Bureaucracy
Ans. (B)
23. One who cannot die—
(A) Stable
(B) Perpetual
(C) Immortal
(D) Perennial
Ans. (C)
24. A person who looks to the dark side of things—
(A) Pessimist
(B) Optimist
(C) Optician
(D) Obstetrician
Ans. (A)
25. Words different in meaning but similar in sound—
(A) Synonym
(B) Antonym
(C) Acronym
(D) Homonym
Ans. (D)
Model Test Headmaster Jobs Recruitment by Rajasthan PSC (RPSC)
Practice Paper For Rpsc Exam English model Questions for headmaster exam
Directions for Questions 1 to 4: Read the following passage carefully and indicate the correct answer to the questions that follow the passage.
It is necessary to be clear about the definition and scope of the word science, and also its distinction from technology. Among the few powerful forces that hold the key to the future of mankind, science is perhaps the only important one that enjoys the unique position of being accepted by all practically without exception. Even in the case of those rare individuals who seem to entertain an antipathy to science, a casual conversation with them will bring out the fact that they are actually opposed not to science, but to technology which is concerned with the applications of the findings of science to satisfy diverse human needs.
By Science we mean today the fundamental knowledge of our world and its environment, the controlled and steady pursuit of that knowledge in all its aspects, without necessarily any desire to use it for public ends and by technology we refer to the numerous ways of pressing science into human service, the concentrated study of the ways in which things may he made or changed for human ends. To make a concrete differentiation between the two one can cite examples from the presently highly popular fields of nuclear science and technology. It is science here when measurements are made of the number and nature, of particles emitted in the break-up or fission of the nucleus of the heavy metallic element uranium. It is however, technology when this scientific knowledge is used either to design and build an atomic power station for generating electricity or to design and make an atomic bomb. As such, it is technology which acquires ethical overtones and can be labeled as moral or immoral. Science is neutral or amoral and can never W opposed to ethics or human welfare, although a scientist as a human being and technologist can be.
1. The writer is trying to
(A) Plead for a better attitude to science
(B) Suggest we apply science for public good
(C) Study ethical science rather than physical science
(D) Distinguish between Science and Technology
Ans. (A)
2. According to the writer, science
(A) Is the only force which determines the future of mankind
(B) Is one of the few determining forces of human destiny
(C) Will be the only concern of human beings in the future
(D) Is one of the many obstacles that block the progress of man
Ans. (B)
3. This passage is
(A) Rhetorical
(B) Descriptive
(C) Narrative
(D) Expository
Ans. (D)
4. The study of fission of the nucleus of uranium can be
(A) Thought of as an example of modern technology
(B) Thought of as an application or principles of electricity
(C) Thought of as having no moral implication
(D) Thought of as important to the welfare of all human beings
Ans. (C)
Directions for Questions 5 to 8: Read the following passage carefully and indicate the correct answer to the questions that follow the passage.
Yes, the sound appeal of music is a potent and primitive force, but you must not allow it to usurp a disproportionate share of your interest. The sensuous plane is an important one in music, a very important one, but it does not constitute the whole story.
There is no need to digress further on the sensuous plane. Its appeal to every normal human being is self-evident. There is, however, such a thing as becoming more sensitive to the different kinds of sound stuff as used by various composers. For, all composers do not use that stuff in the same way. Don’t get the idea that the value of music is commensurate with its sensuous appeal or that the loveliest sounding music is made both greatest composer. The point is that the sound element varies with each composer, that his usage of sound forms an integral part of his style arid must be taken into account when listening. The reader can see, therefore, that a more conscious approach is valuable even on this primary plane of music listening.
The second plane on which music exists is what I have called the expressive one. Here, immediately, we tread on controversial ground. Composers have a way of shying away from any discussion of music’s expressive side. Did not Stravinsky himself proclaim that his music was an object a thing with a life of its own and with no other meaning than its own purely musical existence? This intransient attitude of Stravinsky may be due to the fact that so many people have tried to read different meanings into so many pieces. Heaven knows it is difficult enough to say precisely what it is that a piece of music means, to say it definitely, to say it finally, so that everyone is satisfied with your explanation. But that should not lead one to other extreme of denying to music the right to be ‘expressive’.
My own belief is that all music has an expressive power, some more and some less, but that all music ha a certain meaning behind the notes and that meanings behind the notes constitutes after all, what the piece is saying, what the piece is about. This whole problem can be stated quite simply by asking, ‘Is there a meaning to music?’ My answer to that would be ‘Yes’. And ‘can you state in so many words what the meaning is?’ My answer to that is, ‘No’. Therein lies the difficulty,
5. Music has
(A) An intellectual appeal
(B) A sensuous appeal
(C) A moral appeal
(D) An irresistible appeal
Ans. (B)
6. Which of the following approximates to the meaning of “Allow it to usurp a disproportionate share of your interest”?
(a) Allow it to make you too much interested in it
(h) Does not allow any other thing to interest you
(c) Permit it to occupy you most of the time
(d) Allow it to result in a lukewarm interest
Ans. (A)
7. According to the writer the following may constitute the two planes on which music exists
(A) Sound and appeal
(B) Expression and meaning
(C) Sound and sensat4on
(D) Sound and expression
Ans. (D)
8. Stravinsky says that music has no other meaning than its own purely musical existence because
(A) Each musical niece has a different meaning
(B) People tried to read different meanings into a musical piece instead of enjoying music for its own sake
(C) Different people tried to criticize his musical piece
(D) If the musical notes are explained once, then every body was pleased
Ans. (B)
Fill In the Blanks with appropriate word
9. I have been ill ....... last Sunday.
(A) for
(B) since
(C) from
(D) by
Ans. (B)
10. They are very grateful …….. your kindness.
(A) towards
(B) to
(C) with
(D) for
Ans. (B)
11. …….. duty calls, we must obey.
(A) as
(B) while
(C) if
(D) when
Ans. (D)
12. The city was plunged ........ darkness due to sudden power failure.
(A) through
(B) to
(C) into
(D) under
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 13—15): In each of the following questions out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given bold word—
13. VIRTUALLY
(A) Righteously
(B) Practically
(C) Completely
(D) With virtue
Ans. (C)
14. SALIENT
(A) Silent
(B) Important
(C) Little
(D) Minor
Ans. (B)
15. IGNOBLE
(A) Useless
(B) Base
(C) Worthless
(D) lmpure
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 16—18): In each of the following questions, choose the bold word opposite.
16. PAUCITY
(A) Surplus
(B) Scarcity
(C) Presence
(D) Richness
Ans. (A)
17. ABDICATE
(A) Claim
(B) Snatch
(C) Plunder
(D) Seize
Ans. (A)
18. SALVAGE
(A) Outfit
(B) Lose
(C) Burn
(D) Remove
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 19—21): In each of the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence
19. One who always runs away from danger—
(A) Escapist
(B) Timid
(C) Coward
(D) Shirker
Ans. (B)
20. The study of ancient societies—
(A) History
(B) Anthropology
(C) Ethnology
(D) Archaeology
Ans. (D)
21. Office or post with no work but high pay—
(A) Honorary
(B) Sinecure
(C) Gratis
(D) Ex-officio
Ans. (A)
Directions Choose the most appropriate ‘one word substitute’ out of the four choices given under each
22. A process involving too much official formality—
(A) Nepotism
(B) Red-tapism
(C) Diplomacy
(D) Bureaucracy
Ans. (B)
23. One who cannot die—
(A) Stable
(B) Perpetual
(C) Immortal
(D) Perennial
Ans. (C)
24. A person who looks to the dark side of things—
(A) Pessimist
(B) Optimist
(C) Optician
(D) Obstetrician
Ans. (A)
25. Words different in meaning but similar in sound—
(A) Synonym
(B) Antonym
(C) Acronym
(D) Homonym
Ans. (D)
Physics For UPSC IAS
Physics For UPSC IAS
physics for IAS exam Practice on physics MCQ
Physics practice test UPSC IAS
1. The binary number 110000111101 corresponds to a hexadecimal number:
(a) CFD
(b) D3C
(c) DBF
(d) C3D
Ans. (d)
2. A gate with only one input and one output is:
(a) AN OR gate
(b) A NOT gate
(c) A NAND gate
(d) AN AND gate
Ans. (b)
3. Which one of the following statements is not true in case of Zener diode?
(a) There is no similarity between the forward characteristic curves of a diode and Zener diode
(b)A Zener diode has sharp breakdown-voltage
(c) A Zener diode is always reverse-biased
(d) The Zener diode is a heavily doped diode
Ans. (a)
4. A nibble is equal to:
(a) 4 bits
(b) 8 bits
(c) 2 bits
(d) 16 bits
Ans. (a)
5. For a diatomic gas having 3 translational and 2 rotational degrees of freedom, the energy is given by:
(a) 5/2kT
(b) 3/2kT
(c) 1/2kT
(d) kT
Ans. (a)
6. From van der Waals’ equation, one n deduce that the critical temperature Tc of a substance is proportional to:
(a) a /b
(b) b/a
(c) a/b2
(d) b/a2
Ans. (a)
7. Stefan’s law states that the radiation emitted by a black body is proportional to the:
(a) Average kinetic energy of a molecule
(b) Frequency cut-off in the Debye model
(c) Fourth power of the temperature in degree Celsius (To C)4
(d) Fourth power of the temperature in degree Kelvin (TK)4
Ans. (d)
8. The maximum value of the emissive power of a black body corresponds to a frequency v1 at T1K and v2 at T2K. It follows from Planck’s law of radiation that:
(a) T1/T2 = v1/v2
(b) T2/T1 = v1/v2
(c) T12/T22 = v1/v2
(d) T22/T12 = v1/v2
Ans. (a)
9. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Diamagnetism………. .susceptibility is positive
(b) Paramagnetism……… susceptibility decreases with increasing temperature
(c) Ferromagnetism……... susceptibility is zero
(d) Anti-ferromagnetism…. susceptibility is infinite
Ans. (b)
10. Curie temperature of. Iron is that temperature below which it is : -
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Electrically conducting
(c) Superconducting
(d) Radioactive
Ans. (a)
11. An electric charge is surrounded by several other electric charges. The force exerted by one of the surrounding charges on this charge:
(a) Decreases because of the other charges
(b) Increases because of the surrounding charges
(c) Is independent of the presence of other charges
(d) Depends on the position of other charges
Ans. (c)
12. Two large parallel plates, separated by a distance of 3.0 mm have a capacitance of 10 pF and are charged to a potential of 12 V by a battery. The plates are disconnected from the battery and pulled apart to 5.0 mm. The potential difference between the plates is:
(a) 12V
(b) 20V
(c) Zero
(d) 7.2V
Ans. (b)
13. A circular wire loop of radius r is placed in a region of magnetic field B such that the plane of the loop makes an angle θ with the direction of B. Consider the following conditions in this regard:
1. Change in B with time
2. Change in r with time
3. B being non-uniform in space
4. Change in θ with time
The conditions for an induced emf in the loop would
Include:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (15)
14. A straight conductor of length 05 m is moved with a speed of 8 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity .1.2 Wb/m2. The induced emf across the conductor is
(a) 2.4V
(b) 4.8V
(c) 9.6V
(d) 24V
Ans. (b)
15. The coefficient of mutual inductance of two coils is 0.5 H. If the current is increased from 2 A to 3 A in 0.01 sin the primary coil, then the induced emf in the secondary coil will be
(a) 100V
(b) 75V
(c) 50V
(d) 25 V
Ans. (c)
16. A direct current of 5 A is superimposed on an alternating current I 10 sin cot flowing through a wire. The effective value of the resulting current will be:
(a) 15/2 A
(b) 5√3A
(c) 5J√5A
(d) 15A
Ans. (b)
17. A coil of inductance 5.0 mH and negligible resistance is connected to an oscillator giving an output voltage of
e = l0sin (l00t)
The peak current in the circuit will be:.
(a) 2A
(b) 5A
(c) 10A
(d) 20A
Ans. (d)
18. An electromagnetic wave is propagating in a medium. The quantity √μ/e is the:
(a) Intrinsic impedance of the medium
(b) Square of the refractive index of the medium
(c) Refractive index of the medium
(d) Energy density
Ans. (a)
19. Sign of the Hall coefficient determines the:
(a) Nature of the charge carriers
(b) Magnitude of charge on the carriers
(c) Number density of carriers
(d) Average energy of charge carriers
Ans. (a)
20. If a cyclotron is used to accelerate-electrons, they can attain kinetic energies of the order of a few:
(a) TeV
(b) BeV
(c) MeV
(d) keV
Ans. (c)
physics for IAS exam Practice on physics MCQ
Physics practice test UPSC IAS
1. The binary number 110000111101 corresponds to a hexadecimal number:
(a) CFD
(b) D3C
(c) DBF
(d) C3D
Ans. (d)
2. A gate with only one input and one output is:
(a) AN OR gate
(b) A NOT gate
(c) A NAND gate
(d) AN AND gate
Ans. (b)
3. Which one of the following statements is not true in case of Zener diode?
(a) There is no similarity between the forward characteristic curves of a diode and Zener diode
(b)A Zener diode has sharp breakdown-voltage
(c) A Zener diode is always reverse-biased
(d) The Zener diode is a heavily doped diode
Ans. (a)
4. A nibble is equal to:
(a) 4 bits
(b) 8 bits
(c) 2 bits
(d) 16 bits
Ans. (a)
5. For a diatomic gas having 3 translational and 2 rotational degrees of freedom, the energy is given by:
(a) 5/2kT
(b) 3/2kT
(c) 1/2kT
(d) kT
Ans. (a)
6. From van der Waals’ equation, one n deduce that the critical temperature Tc of a substance is proportional to:
(a) a /b
(b) b/a
(c) a/b2
(d) b/a2
Ans. (a)
7. Stefan’s law states that the radiation emitted by a black body is proportional to the:
(a) Average kinetic energy of a molecule
(b) Frequency cut-off in the Debye model
(c) Fourth power of the temperature in degree Celsius (To C)4
(d) Fourth power of the temperature in degree Kelvin (TK)4
Ans. (d)
8. The maximum value of the emissive power of a black body corresponds to a frequency v1 at T1K and v2 at T2K. It follows from Planck’s law of radiation that:
(a) T1/T2 = v1/v2
(b) T2/T1 = v1/v2
(c) T12/T22 = v1/v2
(d) T22/T12 = v1/v2
Ans. (a)
9. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Diamagnetism………. .susceptibility is positive
(b) Paramagnetism……… susceptibility decreases with increasing temperature
(c) Ferromagnetism……... susceptibility is zero
(d) Anti-ferromagnetism…. susceptibility is infinite
Ans. (b)
10. Curie temperature of. Iron is that temperature below which it is : -
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Electrically conducting
(c) Superconducting
(d) Radioactive
Ans. (a)
11. An electric charge is surrounded by several other electric charges. The force exerted by one of the surrounding charges on this charge:
(a) Decreases because of the other charges
(b) Increases because of the surrounding charges
(c) Is independent of the presence of other charges
(d) Depends on the position of other charges
Ans. (c)
12. Two large parallel plates, separated by a distance of 3.0 mm have a capacitance of 10 pF and are charged to a potential of 12 V by a battery. The plates are disconnected from the battery and pulled apart to 5.0 mm. The potential difference between the plates is:
(a) 12V
(b) 20V
(c) Zero
(d) 7.2V
Ans. (b)
13. A circular wire loop of radius r is placed in a region of magnetic field B such that the plane of the loop makes an angle θ with the direction of B. Consider the following conditions in this regard:
1. Change in B with time
2. Change in r with time
3. B being non-uniform in space
4. Change in θ with time
The conditions for an induced emf in the loop would
Include:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (15)
14. A straight conductor of length 05 m is moved with a speed of 8 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity .1.2 Wb/m2. The induced emf across the conductor is
(a) 2.4V
(b) 4.8V
(c) 9.6V
(d) 24V
Ans. (b)
15. The coefficient of mutual inductance of two coils is 0.5 H. If the current is increased from 2 A to 3 A in 0.01 sin the primary coil, then the induced emf in the secondary coil will be
(a) 100V
(b) 75V
(c) 50V
(d) 25 V
Ans. (c)
16. A direct current of 5 A is superimposed on an alternating current I 10 sin cot flowing through a wire. The effective value of the resulting current will be:
(a) 15/2 A
(b) 5√3A
(c) 5J√5A
(d) 15A
Ans. (b)
17. A coil of inductance 5.0 mH and negligible resistance is connected to an oscillator giving an output voltage of
e = l0sin (l00t)
The peak current in the circuit will be:.
(a) 2A
(b) 5A
(c) 10A
(d) 20A
Ans. (d)
18. An electromagnetic wave is propagating in a medium. The quantity √μ/e is the:
(a) Intrinsic impedance of the medium
(b) Square of the refractive index of the medium
(c) Refractive index of the medium
(d) Energy density
Ans. (a)
19. Sign of the Hall coefficient determines the:
(a) Nature of the charge carriers
(b) Magnitude of charge on the carriers
(c) Number density of carriers
(d) Average energy of charge carriers
Ans. (a)
20. If a cyclotron is used to accelerate-electrons, they can attain kinetic energies of the order of a few:
(a) TeV
(b) BeV
(c) MeV
(d) keV
Ans. (c)
English objective test for SBI Po Exam
English objective test for SBI Po Exam
Objective English solved paper for State Bank of India (SBI) PO Exam
SBI PO Exam Pattern Question Papers Objective
SBI PO Exam Sample Paper: Sample paper for English Language test
Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which Best Expresses The Meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct response.
1. After independence Indian agriculture rose like a phoenix due to the Green Revolution.
(A) with a new life
(B) with a start
(C) with a royal gait
(D) with vengeance
Ans. (A)
2. His failure at the election has been a sore point with him for a long time.
(A) something which hurts
(B) something that brings fear to
(C) something memorable for
(D) something pleasurable to
Ans. (A)
3. The student is on the verge of breakdown.
(A) on the brink of
(B) at the outset of
(C) in the midst of
(D) at the risk of
Ans. (A)
4. My repeated attempts to get refund from the civic authorities were of no avail.
(A) unsuccessful
(B) postponed
(C) useless
(D) delayed
Ans. (A)
5. He was progressing by leaps and bounds because of his hardwork.
(A) rapidly
(B) slowly
(C) peacefully
(D) strongly
Ans. (A)
6. To emerge out of thin air means to.
(A) appear suddenly
(B) descend gradually
(C) fall down quickly
(D) enter from space
Ans. (A)
7. The news of the accident came as a bolt from the blue.
(A) something unexpected
(B) something unpleasant
(C) somèthin1g horrible
(D) something unexpected and unpleasant
Ans. (D)
Directions In each of these questions, choose the word OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the given word and indicate the correct answer.
8. PRUDENT
(A) Silly
(B) Unwise
(C) Idiotic
(D) Poor
Ans. (B)
9. CONCISE
(A) Extended
(B) Lengthy
(C) Protracted
(D) Elongated
Ans. (B)
10. AFFIRMATION
(A) Denial
(B) Refusal
(C) Opposition
(D) Obstruction
Ans. (A)
11. CURTAIL
(A) Arrive
(B) Continue
(C) Resume
(D) Start
Ans. (B)
12. AFFLUENCE
(A) Misery
(B) Stagnation
(C) Neglect
(D) Poverty
Ans. (D)
13. AGREEMENT
(A) Dislocation
(B) Discord
(C) Turbulence
(D) Fragmentation
Ans. (B)
14. AGONY
(A) Pleasure
(B) Laughter
(C) Bliss
(D) Ecstasy
Ans. (A)
15. RETICENT
(A) Forward
(B) Developed
(C) Sophisticated
(D) Communicative
Ans. (D)
16. PRECISE
(A) Indecent
(B) Vague
(C) Incorrect
(D) Indistinct
Ans. (B)
17. CANDID
(A) Cunning
(B) Diplomatic
(C) Doubtful
(D) Impertinent
Ans. (B)
Directions —In each of these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the word and indicate your response.
18. (A) Consience
(B) Conscience
(C) Consciens
(D) Consiens
Ans. (B)
19. (A) Magnificent
(B) Magnificant
(C) Magnificient
(D) Magneficent
Ans. (A)
20. (A) Rennassance
(B) Renaissance
(C) Rennaiscence
(D) Rennaissance
Ans. (B)
21. (A) Irrepairable
(B) Irreparable
(C) Irreparrable
(D) Irepairable
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Superfluous
(B) Superfious
(C) Superfluos
(D) Supperfious
Ans. (A)
23. (A) Pharmaceautical
(B) Pharmacutical
(C) Pharmaceutical
(D) Farmaceutical
Ans. (C)
24. (A) Recomendation
(B) Reccomendation
(C) Recommendation
(D) Reccomandation
Ans. (C)
25. (A) Neccesity
(B) Necessity
(C) Nesissity
(D) Necessety
Ans. (B)
26. (A) Adrass
(B) Address
(C) Addres
(D) Adrress
Ans. (B)
27. (A) Refridgerator
(B) Refregerator
(C) Refreggerator
(D) Refrigerator
Ans. (D)
Directions In each of these questions, four alternatives are given for the given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase and indicate your response.
28. At one’s wit’s end
(A) o work hard
(B) to be intelligent
(C) to get puzzled
(D) to be stupid
Ans. (C)
29. To take someone to task
(A) to scold someone
(B) to assign work to someone
(C) to take someone to his place of work
(D) to praise someone for the work done
Ans. (A)
30. To face the music
(A) to be greeted rudely
(B) to be offered warm hospitality
(C) to enjoy a music programme
(D) to bear the consequences
Ans. (D)
31. To blow one’s own trumpet
(A) to play on one’s own trumpet
(B) to praise one’s own self
(C) to create noisy disturbances
(D) to have a high-pitched voice
Ans. (B)
32. To run one down
(A) to be in a hurry
(B) to be weak and tired
(C) to disparage someone
(D) to run down a lane
Ans. (C)
33. At snail’s pace
(A) to do things very slowly
(B) to walk like a snail
(C) to lack interest in work
(D) to do things in a methodical manner
Ans. (A)
34. To turn a deaf ear
(A) to be hard of hearing
(B) to be indifferent
(C) to be attentive
(D) to be obstinate
Ans. (B)
35. To take to one’s heels
(A) to run off
(B) to show one’s heels
(C) to turn around
(D) to walk leisurely
Ans. (A)
36. To have something up one’s sleeves
(A) having a practical plan
(B) having an important project
(C) having an ambitious plan
(D) having a secret plan
Ans. (D)
37. To end in smoke
(A) to have a smoking session
(B) to be on fire
(C) to come to nothing
(D) to burn slowly
Ans. (C)
Directions:In each of these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words! sentence and indicate your correct response.
38. A government in which all religions are honoured
(A) Communist
(B) Socialistic
(C) Secular
(D) Capitalist
Ans. (C)
39. A place where government/public records are kept
(A) Archive
(B) Museum
(C) Shelf
(D) Cellar
Ans. (A)
40. Living together of a man and woman without being married to each other
(A) Marriage
(B) Equipage
(C) Lineage
(D) Concubinage
Ans. (D)
Objective English solved paper for State Bank of India (SBI) PO Exam
SBI PO Exam Pattern Question Papers Objective
SBI PO Exam Sample Paper: Sample paper for English Language test
Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which Best Expresses The Meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct response.
1. After independence Indian agriculture rose like a phoenix due to the Green Revolution.
(A) with a new life
(B) with a start
(C) with a royal gait
(D) with vengeance
Ans. (A)
2. His failure at the election has been a sore point with him for a long time.
(A) something which hurts
(B) something that brings fear to
(C) something memorable for
(D) something pleasurable to
Ans. (A)
3. The student is on the verge of breakdown.
(A) on the brink of
(B) at the outset of
(C) in the midst of
(D) at the risk of
Ans. (A)
4. My repeated attempts to get refund from the civic authorities were of no avail.
(A) unsuccessful
(B) postponed
(C) useless
(D) delayed
Ans. (A)
5. He was progressing by leaps and bounds because of his hardwork.
(A) rapidly
(B) slowly
(C) peacefully
(D) strongly
Ans. (A)
6. To emerge out of thin air means to.
(A) appear suddenly
(B) descend gradually
(C) fall down quickly
(D) enter from space
Ans. (A)
7. The news of the accident came as a bolt from the blue.
(A) something unexpected
(B) something unpleasant
(C) somèthin1g horrible
(D) something unexpected and unpleasant
Ans. (D)
Directions In each of these questions, choose the word OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the given word and indicate the correct answer.
8. PRUDENT
(A) Silly
(B) Unwise
(C) Idiotic
(D) Poor
Ans. (B)
9. CONCISE
(A) Extended
(B) Lengthy
(C) Protracted
(D) Elongated
Ans. (B)
10. AFFIRMATION
(A) Denial
(B) Refusal
(C) Opposition
(D) Obstruction
Ans. (A)
11. CURTAIL
(A) Arrive
(B) Continue
(C) Resume
(D) Start
Ans. (B)
12. AFFLUENCE
(A) Misery
(B) Stagnation
(C) Neglect
(D) Poverty
Ans. (D)
13. AGREEMENT
(A) Dislocation
(B) Discord
(C) Turbulence
(D) Fragmentation
Ans. (B)
14. AGONY
(A) Pleasure
(B) Laughter
(C) Bliss
(D) Ecstasy
Ans. (A)
15. RETICENT
(A) Forward
(B) Developed
(C) Sophisticated
(D) Communicative
Ans. (D)
16. PRECISE
(A) Indecent
(B) Vague
(C) Incorrect
(D) Indistinct
Ans. (B)
17. CANDID
(A) Cunning
(B) Diplomatic
(C) Doubtful
(D) Impertinent
Ans. (B)
Directions —In each of these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the word and indicate your response.
18. (A) Consience
(B) Conscience
(C) Consciens
(D) Consiens
Ans. (B)
19. (A) Magnificent
(B) Magnificant
(C) Magnificient
(D) Magneficent
Ans. (A)
20. (A) Rennassance
(B) Renaissance
(C) Rennaiscence
(D) Rennaissance
Ans. (B)
21. (A) Irrepairable
(B) Irreparable
(C) Irreparrable
(D) Irepairable
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Superfluous
(B) Superfious
(C) Superfluos
(D) Supperfious
Ans. (A)
23. (A) Pharmaceautical
(B) Pharmacutical
(C) Pharmaceutical
(D) Farmaceutical
Ans. (C)
24. (A) Recomendation
(B) Reccomendation
(C) Recommendation
(D) Reccomandation
Ans. (C)
25. (A) Neccesity
(B) Necessity
(C) Nesissity
(D) Necessety
Ans. (B)
26. (A) Adrass
(B) Address
(C) Addres
(D) Adrress
Ans. (B)
27. (A) Refridgerator
(B) Refregerator
(C) Refreggerator
(D) Refrigerator
Ans. (D)
Directions In each of these questions, four alternatives are given for the given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase and indicate your response.
28. At one’s wit’s end
(A) o work hard
(B) to be intelligent
(C) to get puzzled
(D) to be stupid
Ans. (C)
29. To take someone to task
(A) to scold someone
(B) to assign work to someone
(C) to take someone to his place of work
(D) to praise someone for the work done
Ans. (A)
30. To face the music
(A) to be greeted rudely
(B) to be offered warm hospitality
(C) to enjoy a music programme
(D) to bear the consequences
Ans. (D)
31. To blow one’s own trumpet
(A) to play on one’s own trumpet
(B) to praise one’s own self
(C) to create noisy disturbances
(D) to have a high-pitched voice
Ans. (B)
32. To run one down
(A) to be in a hurry
(B) to be weak and tired
(C) to disparage someone
(D) to run down a lane
Ans. (C)
33. At snail’s pace
(A) to do things very slowly
(B) to walk like a snail
(C) to lack interest in work
(D) to do things in a methodical manner
Ans. (A)
34. To turn a deaf ear
(A) to be hard of hearing
(B) to be indifferent
(C) to be attentive
(D) to be obstinate
Ans. (B)
35. To take to one’s heels
(A) to run off
(B) to show one’s heels
(C) to turn around
(D) to walk leisurely
Ans. (A)
36. To have something up one’s sleeves
(A) having a practical plan
(B) having an important project
(C) having an ambitious plan
(D) having a secret plan
Ans. (D)
37. To end in smoke
(A) to have a smoking session
(B) to be on fire
(C) to come to nothing
(D) to burn slowly
Ans. (C)
Directions:In each of these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words! sentence and indicate your correct response.
38. A government in which all religions are honoured
(A) Communist
(B) Socialistic
(C) Secular
(D) Capitalist
Ans. (C)
39. A place where government/public records are kept
(A) Archive
(B) Museum
(C) Shelf
(D) Cellar
Ans. (A)
40. Living together of a man and woman without being married to each other
(A) Marriage
(B) Equipage
(C) Lineage
(D) Concubinage
Ans. (D)
Online free english grammar Sample test
Online free english grammar Sample test
English Grammar Online - free test
Free English Grammar Lessons and Test Online
English vocabulary and grammar with free online English tesr
Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which Best Expresses the meaning of the given bold word and indicate the correct alternative.
1. SUPERANNUATED
(A) Experienced
(B) Accepted
(C) Retired
(D) Senile
Ans. (C)
2. AUDACITY
(A) Strength
(B) Boldness
(C) Asperity
(D) Fear
Ans. (B)
3. DECREPITUDE
(A) Disease
(B) Coolness
(C) Crowd
(D) Feebleness
Ans. (D)
4. TRANSITION
(A) Position
(B) Translation
(C) Change
(D) Movement
Ans. (C)
5. ACCUSED
(A) Indicated
(B) Indicted
(C) Induced
(D) Instigated
Ans. (B)
6. BECKONED
(A) Accused
(B) Called
(C) Sent
(D) Acquitted
Ans. (B)
7 GENUINE
(A) Generous
(B) Healthy
(C) Natural
(D) Original
Ans. (D)
Directions: In the following choose the word Opposite In Meaning to the given bold word and indicate the correct alternative.
8. ATHEIST
(A) Rationalist
(B) Theologist
(C) Believer
(D) Ritualist
Ans. (C)
9. GIGANTIC
(A) Weak
(B) Fragile
(C) Slight
(D) Tiny
Ans. (D)
10. ILLICIT
(A) Liberal
(B) Intelligent
(C) Lawful
(D) Clear
Ans. (C)
11. CALLOUS
(A) Sensitive
(B) Soft
(C) Kind
(D) Generous
Ans. (A)
12. ENIGMATIC
(A) Simple
(B) Reticent
(C) Plain
(D) Nervous
Ans. (A)
13. ABUNDANT
(A) Short
(B) Limited
(C) Petty
(D) Meagre
Ans. (D)
14. HARASS
(A) Reward
(B) Praise
(C) flatter
(D) Relieve
Ans. (C)
15. CHARMING
(A) Insolent
(B) Indignant
(C) Repulsive
(D) Handicapped
Ans. (C)
16. GRUESOME
(A) Attractive
(B) Beneficial
(C) Gracious
(D) Amicable
Ans. (A)
17. DESPISE
(A) Appease
(B) Flatter
(C) Admire
(D) Appreciate
Ans. (C)
Directions: In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate your correct response.
18. (A) Excution
(B) Excitment
(C) Expedition
(D) Extrection
Ans. (C)
19. (A) Externel
(B) Extrovart
(C) Introvert
(D) Exect
Ans. (C)
20. (A) Expact
(B) Impact
(C) Exite
(D) Entertaining
Ans. (B)
21. (A) Intruisting
(B) Interesting
(C) Intersting
(D) Entertening
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Supremecy
(B) Suppressor
(C) Surfiet
(D) Surender
Ans. (B)
Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which Best Expresses The Meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct response.
23. She is a fair-weather friend.
(A) a good friend
(B) a friend who meets difficulties calmly
(C) one who deserts you in difficulties
(D) a favourable friend
Ans. (C)
24. To die in harness means to die while—
(A) riding a horse
(B) in a stable
(C) in a uniform
(D) still in service
Ans. (D)
25. To keep under wraps means to keep something.
(A) covered
(B) protected
(C) unpacked
(D) secret
Ans. (D)
English Grammar Online - free test
Free English Grammar Lessons and Test Online
English vocabulary and grammar with free online English tesr
Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which Best Expresses the meaning of the given bold word and indicate the correct alternative.
1. SUPERANNUATED
(A) Experienced
(B) Accepted
(C) Retired
(D) Senile
Ans. (C)
2. AUDACITY
(A) Strength
(B) Boldness
(C) Asperity
(D) Fear
Ans. (B)
3. DECREPITUDE
(A) Disease
(B) Coolness
(C) Crowd
(D) Feebleness
Ans. (D)
4. TRANSITION
(A) Position
(B) Translation
(C) Change
(D) Movement
Ans. (C)
5. ACCUSED
(A) Indicated
(B) Indicted
(C) Induced
(D) Instigated
Ans. (B)
6. BECKONED
(A) Accused
(B) Called
(C) Sent
(D) Acquitted
Ans. (B)
7 GENUINE
(A) Generous
(B) Healthy
(C) Natural
(D) Original
Ans. (D)
Directions: In the following choose the word Opposite In Meaning to the given bold word and indicate the correct alternative.
8. ATHEIST
(A) Rationalist
(B) Theologist
(C) Believer
(D) Ritualist
Ans. (C)
9. GIGANTIC
(A) Weak
(B) Fragile
(C) Slight
(D) Tiny
Ans. (D)
10. ILLICIT
(A) Liberal
(B) Intelligent
(C) Lawful
(D) Clear
Ans. (C)
11. CALLOUS
(A) Sensitive
(B) Soft
(C) Kind
(D) Generous
Ans. (A)
12. ENIGMATIC
(A) Simple
(B) Reticent
(C) Plain
(D) Nervous
Ans. (A)
13. ABUNDANT
(A) Short
(B) Limited
(C) Petty
(D) Meagre
Ans. (D)
14. HARASS
(A) Reward
(B) Praise
(C) flatter
(D) Relieve
Ans. (C)
15. CHARMING
(A) Insolent
(B) Indignant
(C) Repulsive
(D) Handicapped
Ans. (C)
16. GRUESOME
(A) Attractive
(B) Beneficial
(C) Gracious
(D) Amicable
Ans. (A)
17. DESPISE
(A) Appease
(B) Flatter
(C) Admire
(D) Appreciate
Ans. (C)
Directions: In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate your correct response.
18. (A) Excution
(B) Excitment
(C) Expedition
(D) Extrection
Ans. (C)
19. (A) Externel
(B) Extrovart
(C) Introvert
(D) Exect
Ans. (C)
20. (A) Expact
(B) Impact
(C) Exite
(D) Entertaining
Ans. (B)
21. (A) Intruisting
(B) Interesting
(C) Intersting
(D) Entertening
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Supremecy
(B) Suppressor
(C) Surfiet
(D) Surender
Ans. (B)
Directions: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which Best Expresses The Meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct response.
23. She is a fair-weather friend.
(A) a good friend
(B) a friend who meets difficulties calmly
(C) one who deserts you in difficulties
(D) a favourable friend
Ans. (C)
24. To die in harness means to die while—
(A) riding a horse
(B) in a stable
(C) in a uniform
(D) still in service
Ans. (D)
25. To keep under wraps means to keep something.
(A) covered
(B) protected
(C) unpacked
(D) secret
Ans. (D)
commerce mcq
commerce mcq
MCQ Commerce Quiz For Degree Students BCom India
MCQ Commerce Objective test paper
COMMERCE MCQ AND SOLUTIONS
1. Match List-I (Concepts of Accounting) with List-II (Suitability of the Accounting Concepts) and select the Correct answer using the Code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Concepts of Accounting) (Suitability of the Accounting Concepts)
A. Money measurement concept 1. Applicable to all forms of business organizations
B. Business entity concept 2. Basic accounting
C. Cost concept 3. Original purchase price of assets
D. Dual aspect concept 4. Applicable to those transactions/ events which
are of financial nature in accounting
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (c)
2. The cost of a machine is Rs.70, 000. It has 10-year life at the end of which it is expected to realize Rs.5, 000. The depreciation for first for years on a straight line basis is
(a) Rs. 28,000
(b) Rs. 26,000
(c) Rs. 22,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
Ans. (b)
3. What is the kind of expenditure incurred on heavy advertising whose benefit is to continue for years to come?
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) Prepaid Expenditure
Ans. (c)
4. Cost of goods purchased for resale is an example of:
(a) capital expenditure
(b) revenue expenditure
(c) deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
5. Consider the following statements:
Capital expenditure is incurred for the purpose of
1. obtaining a long-term benefit for the business
2. increasing earning capacity of the business
3. purchasing of marketable securities
4. acquiring of an asset in the business
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
6. Which one among the following shall result in ‘capital loss’ to a firm ?
(a) Pilferage of certain items
(b) Loss of goods in transit
(c) Loss due to delay in delivery by port authorities
(d) Confiscation of goods by custom authorities on account of false declaration
Ans. (a)
7. Z is admitted in a firm for a 1/4 share in the profits for which he brings Rs 30,000 for goodwill. It will be taken away by the old partners X and Y in:
(a) old profit-sharing ratio
(b) new profit-sharing ratio
(c) sacrificing ratio
(d) capital ratio
Ans. (c)
8. A partner’s capital at the end of a, year was Rs 3,00,000. His share of profit for the. year was Rs. 60,000 and he had drawn Rs. 20,000 from the firm during the year. Then his capital at the beginning of the year was:
(a) Rs. 3,00,000
(b) Rs. 3,20,000
(c) Rs. 3,80,000
(d) Rs. 2,60,000
Ans.(d)
9. The balance left in the capital accounts on dissolution of a firm is transferred to:
(a) Realization Account
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) Bank Account
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
10. As per Garner v. Murray rule, the loss resulting from a partner’s insolvency is borne by other partners in:
(a) equal ratio
(b) their capital ratio
(c) their profit-sharing ratio
(d) 3 : 1 ratio
Ans.(b)
11. Consider the following statements:
Issue of bonus shares can be made out of the
1. General Reserve Account
2. Realized Capital Profits ‘Account
3. Revaluation Reserve Account
4. Profit and Loss Account (Cr.)
Which. of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
12. A, B and C are equal partners, After distributing the loss on realization of assets and paying all liabilities
their capital accounts show the following balances:
A— Rs. 10,000 (Cr.)
B—Rs. 4,000 (Cr.)
C—Rs. 14,000 (Dr.)
What is the amount of cash with the firm?
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 4,000
(c) Rs. 14,000
(d) Rs. 10,000
Ans. (c)
13. In case of retirement of a partner, the partner’s loan account would be shown:
(a) in his capital account
(b) in his wife’s loin account
(c) in his loan account
(d) in the total amount due to him
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following is/are included in income and expenditure account?
1. Accrued expenses
2. Credit purchases
3. Prepaid expenses
4. Opening cash balance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence regarding preparation of final accounts?
(a) Ledger—Trial Balance—Journal—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
(b) Journal—Ledger—Trial Balance—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
(c) Trial Balance—Ledger—Journal—Balance Sheet—Profit and Loss Account
(d) Journal—Trial Balance—Ledger—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following:
1. Preparation of Balance Sheet
2. Preparation of Funds Flow Statement
3. Preparation of Trial Balance
4. Preparation of Profit and Loss Account
The correct chronological sequence of the above in the preparation of periodical financial statement is:
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans.(b)
17. In a draft Balance. Sheet, the stock at valuation Rs. 1,00,000 was shown on assets side. While finalizing the Balance Sheet, an item which was valued at Rs. 37,400 had realizable of Rs. 26,000 only. In the Profit and Loss Account, the stock would be shown at:
(a) Rs. 62,600
(b) Rs. 88,600
(c) Rs. 1,00,000
(d) Rs 1,26,000
Ans. (b)
18. Consider the following statements
The purposes of charging depreciation to the Profit and Loss Account are:
1. to provide for replacement of an asset
2. to ascertain true profit
3. to present real financial position
4. to arrive at the scrap value of the asset
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
19. Forty thousand 10% Redeemable Preference Shares of Rs. 10 each are redeemed at a premium of Rs. 10 each by the issue of 20,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. each.
The amount transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account would be:
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 2,20,000
(d) Rs. 2,40,000
Ans. (b)
20. Profit from re-issue of forfeited shares should be transferred to:
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) General Reserve
(c) Share Premium Account
(d) Capital Account
Ans. (d)
21. A company must refund the amount of subscription received from the public including the development if the amount received is less than the mandatory minimum subscription. The mandatory minimum subscription is
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 90%
(d) 95%
Ans. (c)
22. Equity shares represent owner’s capital. Therefore, an equity shareholder:
(a) has preferential claim over income and wealth of the company
(b) has residual claim over income and wealth of the company
(c) has no right over income and wealth of the company
(d) is personally liable for all the liabilities of the company even beyond his paid-up capital
Ans. (b)
23. Which one of the following statements is true of bonus shares?
(a) Bonus shares are issued to the promoters only
(b) Bonus shares are issued only to the existing shareholders
(c) Bonus shares are the shares issued to the employees of the company as an incentive
(d) Bonus shares are issued at par value
Ans.(b)
24. Which one of the following transactions can change
the current ratio?
(a) Purchase of goods for cash
(b) Payment to outstanding trade creditors
(c) Acceptance on a Bill of Exchange written by a trade creditor
(d) Dishonor of a Bill of Exchange
Ans. (b)
25. An investor while trading in a stock in the share market lays greatest emphasis upon:
(a) earning before interest and tax
(b) rate of return on equity
(c) earning price ratio
(d) dividend price ratio
Ans. (c)
26. A company takes a loan of Rs. 70 lakhs on which it has to pay interest @ 15% p.a. Company’s return on investment is 25% before tax and the tax payable on net earnings is 60%. What gain accrues to the shareholders because of this loan?
(a) Rs. 2, 40,000
(b) Rs. 2, 43,000
(c) Rs. 2, 77,000
(d) Rs. 2, 80,000
Ans. (d)
27. Following particulars are given for a firm:
Quick Ratio—1 .5
Current Assets—Rs. 1, 50,000 Current Liabilities—Rs. 60,000
The value of stock is:
(a) Rs. 60,000
(b) Rs. 70.000
(c) Rs. 80,000
(d) Rs. 90,000
Ans. (a)
28. The Balance Sheet of M/s ABC as on 3 1 December is:
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Equity Share Capital 22,000 Machinery and
Equipment 46,000
Stock 14,000
Profit and Loss A/c 8,000
10% Sundry Debtors 10,000
Debentures 19,000 Cash at bank 2,000
Sundry 23,000
Creditors
Provision for Taxation 1000 Prepaid Expenses 1000
73,000 73, 000
The Liquidity Ratio is:
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 9: 20
(c) 1: 2
(d) 1: 1
Ans. (c)
29. The current assets to the current liabilities ratio is said to be satisfactory if it is
(a) 1: 2
(b) 2: 1
(c) 1: 1
(d) 1.5: 1
Ans. (b)
30. For a firm, the particulars are:
Rs. Rs.
Stock 60,000 Cash in Hand 40,000
Debtors 45,000 Creditors 70,000
Bills 12,000 Bills Payable 45,000
Receivable Bank 4,000
Overdraft
Advances 4,000
(Recoverable Net Sales 7,50,000
cash or kind) Gross Profit 60,000
Net Profit 40,0000
The Current Ratio for the firm is nearly:
(a) 27: 20
(b) 17:13
(c) 9:7
(d) 11 :9
Ans. (c)
31. Which one of the following is a leveraged buy-out?
(a) When a company is taken over by financing through borrowed funds
(b) When a company is taken over by the employees’ funds
(c) When a lender takes over a company to whom it is indebted
(d) When a company is bought out directly by buying its shares in the market
Ans. (a)
32. For a firm:
Opening Stock—Rs. 32,000
Closing Stock—Rs. 34,000
Sales—Rs. 4,40,000
Gross Profit Ratio—25% on sales
The stock turnover ratio of the firm is
(a) 8.0
(b) 8.5
(c) 9.0
(d) 10.0
Ans. (d)
33. Following particulars are given for a firm:
Closing Stock—Rs. 45,000
Other Current Assets——Rs. 1,05,000
Current Liabilities - Rs. 70,000
Sales—Rs. 3,20,000
The Working Capital Turnover Ratio is:
(a)5 :1
(b)4 :1
(c)3 :1
(d)2 :1
Ans. (b)
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the Code given below the lists:
List—I List-II
A. VED Analysis 1. Sources and uses of fund
B. Ratio Analysis 2. Inventory control
C. Fund-flow Analysis 3. Analysis and interpretation of financial statements
D. Income and Expenditure 4. Non-profit organization analysis
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (b)
35. If net profit are Rs. 30,000 and expenses not resulting in the application of fund are Rs. 10,000, then the funds from operation will be:
(a) Rs. 30,000
(b) Rs. 40,000
(c) Rs. 10,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
Ans. (b)
36. Select the pairs which are correctly matched
1. Statutory Audit : Review of various operations of a company
2. Management Audit : Verification of top level policy and its implications
3. Operational Audit : Examining the production planning and control operations
4. Internal Audit : According to the company objectives
Select the correct answer using the Code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
37. Four important acts performed by an Auditor in connection with an audit work are:
1. verification of assets and checking valuation of the same
2. checking of Annual Accounts and balance Sheet
3. preparation of an audit programme
4. test checking of financial transactions
The correct sequence in which these acts are
performed by the Auditor is
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c)3, 1,4,2
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans. (d)
38. Consider the following statements
The auditor is generally expected to carry out the following in a particular seriatim:
1. Verification of assets and liabilities
2. Vouching of transactions
3. Checking of valuation of assets and liabilities
The correct chronological sequence of these acts is:
(a) 1, 3, 2
(b) 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 3
(d) 3, 1, 2
Ans. (c)
39. Auditing is compulsory in case of:
(a) Joint-stock Company
(b) Charitable Trust
(c) Cooperative Society
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
40. Consider the following statements:
An ‘Internal Audit’ is not a part of:
1. Continuous Statutory Audit
2. Internal Check System
3. Internal Control System
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
41. Consider the following statements:
An ‘Internal Control System’ may include:
1. interim audit
2. internal audit
3. financial controls
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. (c)
42. According to the Companies Act, account books of a company are to be preserved for the preceding:
(a) six years
(b) eight years
(c) five years
(d) nine years
Ans. (b)
43. Consider the following functions:
1. Checking of valuation and physical verification of assets
2. Routine checking and vouching
3. Scrutiny of internal check system
The correct sequence of these functions to be performed by an Auditor during the course of auditing is
(a) 2, 1, 3
(b) 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 1
(d) 1, 2 , 3
Ans. (c)
44. Which of the following may be included in ‘Audit Working Paper’?
1. Audit notebook
2. Audit programmes
3. Schedules of sundry debtors and sundry creditors
4. Audit manuals
Select the correct answer using the Code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
45. Internal Auditor is appointed by the:
(a) Board of Directors of the Company
(b) shareholders of the Company
(c) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(d) Company Secretary
Ans. (a)
46. Financial audit in Joint-stock Company in India is:
(a) necessary
(b) voluntary
(c) statutory
(d) voluntary for companies which operate in certain activities only
Ans. (c)
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Transfer and transmission of shares is the same thing
2. ‘Stag’ is a speculative person who applies for shares in a new issue expected to be oversubscribed to make profit by selling such shares at a premium-
3. Stock is a bundle of fully paid shares put together for convenience
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (b)
48. Underwriters are persons who:
(a) purchase the shares and debentures of a company
(b) work as agents of the company for the sale of shares and debentures
(c) undertake to buy those shares and debentures not subscribe for by the public
(d) publicize the share-issue on behalf of the company
Ans. (c)
49. The movement of securities from one stock exchange to another with the object of reaping a profit from the disparity in share prices is called:
(a) averaging
(b) arbitraging
(c) backwardation
(d) forward trading
Ans. (b)
50. Which one of the following statements pertaining to mutual funds is true?
(a) Mutual funds can be operated only by government organizations
(b) The maximum investment in mutual funds by an individual should not exceed a particular ceiling fixed by government from time to time
(c) Return on investment and safety of principal is not guaranteed in mutual funds
(d) Unit Trust of India is the regulatory authority for mutual funds in India.
Ans. (b)
MCQ Commerce Quiz For Degree Students BCom India
MCQ Commerce Objective test paper
COMMERCE MCQ AND SOLUTIONS
1. Match List-I (Concepts of Accounting) with List-II (Suitability of the Accounting Concepts) and select the Correct answer using the Code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Concepts of Accounting) (Suitability of the Accounting Concepts)
A. Money measurement concept 1. Applicable to all forms of business organizations
B. Business entity concept 2. Basic accounting
C. Cost concept 3. Original purchase price of assets
D. Dual aspect concept 4. Applicable to those transactions/ events which
are of financial nature in accounting
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (c)
2. The cost of a machine is Rs.70, 000. It has 10-year life at the end of which it is expected to realize Rs.5, 000. The depreciation for first for years on a straight line basis is
(a) Rs. 28,000
(b) Rs. 26,000
(c) Rs. 22,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
Ans. (b)
3. What is the kind of expenditure incurred on heavy advertising whose benefit is to continue for years to come?
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) Prepaid Expenditure
Ans. (c)
4. Cost of goods purchased for resale is an example of:
(a) capital expenditure
(b) revenue expenditure
(c) deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
5. Consider the following statements:
Capital expenditure is incurred for the purpose of
1. obtaining a long-term benefit for the business
2. increasing earning capacity of the business
3. purchasing of marketable securities
4. acquiring of an asset in the business
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
6. Which one among the following shall result in ‘capital loss’ to a firm ?
(a) Pilferage of certain items
(b) Loss of goods in transit
(c) Loss due to delay in delivery by port authorities
(d) Confiscation of goods by custom authorities on account of false declaration
Ans. (a)
7. Z is admitted in a firm for a 1/4 share in the profits for which he brings Rs 30,000 for goodwill. It will be taken away by the old partners X and Y in:
(a) old profit-sharing ratio
(b) new profit-sharing ratio
(c) sacrificing ratio
(d) capital ratio
Ans. (c)
8. A partner’s capital at the end of a, year was Rs 3,00,000. His share of profit for the. year was Rs. 60,000 and he had drawn Rs. 20,000 from the firm during the year. Then his capital at the beginning of the year was:
(a) Rs. 3,00,000
(b) Rs. 3,20,000
(c) Rs. 3,80,000
(d) Rs. 2,60,000
Ans.(d)
9. The balance left in the capital accounts on dissolution of a firm is transferred to:
(a) Realization Account
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) Bank Account
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
10. As per Garner v. Murray rule, the loss resulting from a partner’s insolvency is borne by other partners in:
(a) equal ratio
(b) their capital ratio
(c) their profit-sharing ratio
(d) 3 : 1 ratio
Ans.(b)
11. Consider the following statements:
Issue of bonus shares can be made out of the
1. General Reserve Account
2. Realized Capital Profits ‘Account
3. Revaluation Reserve Account
4. Profit and Loss Account (Cr.)
Which. of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
12. A, B and C are equal partners, After distributing the loss on realization of assets and paying all liabilities
their capital accounts show the following balances:
A— Rs. 10,000 (Cr.)
B—Rs. 4,000 (Cr.)
C—Rs. 14,000 (Dr.)
What is the amount of cash with the firm?
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 4,000
(c) Rs. 14,000
(d) Rs. 10,000
Ans. (c)
13. In case of retirement of a partner, the partner’s loan account would be shown:
(a) in his capital account
(b) in his wife’s loin account
(c) in his loan account
(d) in the total amount due to him
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following is/are included in income and expenditure account?
1. Accrued expenses
2. Credit purchases
3. Prepaid expenses
4. Opening cash balance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence regarding preparation of final accounts?
(a) Ledger—Trial Balance—Journal—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
(b) Journal—Ledger—Trial Balance—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
(c) Trial Balance—Ledger—Journal—Balance Sheet—Profit and Loss Account
(d) Journal—Trial Balance—Ledger—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following:
1. Preparation of Balance Sheet
2. Preparation of Funds Flow Statement
3. Preparation of Trial Balance
4. Preparation of Profit and Loss Account
The correct chronological sequence of the above in the preparation of periodical financial statement is:
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans.(b)
17. In a draft Balance. Sheet, the stock at valuation Rs. 1,00,000 was shown on assets side. While finalizing the Balance Sheet, an item which was valued at Rs. 37,400 had realizable of Rs. 26,000 only. In the Profit and Loss Account, the stock would be shown at:
(a) Rs. 62,600
(b) Rs. 88,600
(c) Rs. 1,00,000
(d) Rs 1,26,000
Ans. (b)
18. Consider the following statements
The purposes of charging depreciation to the Profit and Loss Account are:
1. to provide for replacement of an asset
2. to ascertain true profit
3. to present real financial position
4. to arrive at the scrap value of the asset
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
19. Forty thousand 10% Redeemable Preference Shares of Rs. 10 each are redeemed at a premium of Rs. 10 each by the issue of 20,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. each.
The amount transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account would be:
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 2,20,000
(d) Rs. 2,40,000
Ans. (b)
20. Profit from re-issue of forfeited shares should be transferred to:
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) General Reserve
(c) Share Premium Account
(d) Capital Account
Ans. (d)
21. A company must refund the amount of subscription received from the public including the development if the amount received is less than the mandatory minimum subscription. The mandatory minimum subscription is
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 90%
(d) 95%
Ans. (c)
22. Equity shares represent owner’s capital. Therefore, an equity shareholder:
(a) has preferential claim over income and wealth of the company
(b) has residual claim over income and wealth of the company
(c) has no right over income and wealth of the company
(d) is personally liable for all the liabilities of the company even beyond his paid-up capital
Ans. (b)
23. Which one of the following statements is true of bonus shares?
(a) Bonus shares are issued to the promoters only
(b) Bonus shares are issued only to the existing shareholders
(c) Bonus shares are the shares issued to the employees of the company as an incentive
(d) Bonus shares are issued at par value
Ans.(b)
24. Which one of the following transactions can change
the current ratio?
(a) Purchase of goods for cash
(b) Payment to outstanding trade creditors
(c) Acceptance on a Bill of Exchange written by a trade creditor
(d) Dishonor of a Bill of Exchange
Ans. (b)
25. An investor while trading in a stock in the share market lays greatest emphasis upon:
(a) earning before interest and tax
(b) rate of return on equity
(c) earning price ratio
(d) dividend price ratio
Ans. (c)
26. A company takes a loan of Rs. 70 lakhs on which it has to pay interest @ 15% p.a. Company’s return on investment is 25% before tax and the tax payable on net earnings is 60%. What gain accrues to the shareholders because of this loan?
(a) Rs. 2, 40,000
(b) Rs. 2, 43,000
(c) Rs. 2, 77,000
(d) Rs. 2, 80,000
Ans. (d)
27. Following particulars are given for a firm:
Quick Ratio—1 .5
Current Assets—Rs. 1, 50,000 Current Liabilities—Rs. 60,000
The value of stock is:
(a) Rs. 60,000
(b) Rs. 70.000
(c) Rs. 80,000
(d) Rs. 90,000
Ans. (a)
28. The Balance Sheet of M/s ABC as on 3 1 December is:
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Equity Share Capital 22,000 Machinery and
Equipment 46,000
Stock 14,000
Profit and Loss A/c 8,000
10% Sundry Debtors 10,000
Debentures 19,000 Cash at bank 2,000
Sundry 23,000
Creditors
Provision for Taxation 1000 Prepaid Expenses 1000
73,000 73, 000
The Liquidity Ratio is:
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 9: 20
(c) 1: 2
(d) 1: 1
Ans. (c)
29. The current assets to the current liabilities ratio is said to be satisfactory if it is
(a) 1: 2
(b) 2: 1
(c) 1: 1
(d) 1.5: 1
Ans. (b)
30. For a firm, the particulars are:
Rs. Rs.
Stock 60,000 Cash in Hand 40,000
Debtors 45,000 Creditors 70,000
Bills 12,000 Bills Payable 45,000
Receivable Bank 4,000
Overdraft
Advances 4,000
(Recoverable Net Sales 7,50,000
cash or kind) Gross Profit 60,000
Net Profit 40,0000
The Current Ratio for the firm is nearly:
(a) 27: 20
(b) 17:13
(c) 9:7
(d) 11 :9
Ans. (c)
31. Which one of the following is a leveraged buy-out?
(a) When a company is taken over by financing through borrowed funds
(b) When a company is taken over by the employees’ funds
(c) When a lender takes over a company to whom it is indebted
(d) When a company is bought out directly by buying its shares in the market
Ans. (a)
32. For a firm:
Opening Stock—Rs. 32,000
Closing Stock—Rs. 34,000
Sales—Rs. 4,40,000
Gross Profit Ratio—25% on sales
The stock turnover ratio of the firm is
(a) 8.0
(b) 8.5
(c) 9.0
(d) 10.0
Ans. (d)
33. Following particulars are given for a firm:
Closing Stock—Rs. 45,000
Other Current Assets——Rs. 1,05,000
Current Liabilities - Rs. 70,000
Sales—Rs. 3,20,000
The Working Capital Turnover Ratio is:
(a)5 :1
(b)4 :1
(c)3 :1
(d)2 :1
Ans. (b)
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the Code given below the lists:
List—I List-II
A. VED Analysis 1. Sources and uses of fund
B. Ratio Analysis 2. Inventory control
C. Fund-flow Analysis 3. Analysis and interpretation of financial statements
D. Income and Expenditure 4. Non-profit organization analysis
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (b)
35. If net profit are Rs. 30,000 and expenses not resulting in the application of fund are Rs. 10,000, then the funds from operation will be:
(a) Rs. 30,000
(b) Rs. 40,000
(c) Rs. 10,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
Ans. (b)
36. Select the pairs which are correctly matched
1. Statutory Audit : Review of various operations of a company
2. Management Audit : Verification of top level policy and its implications
3. Operational Audit : Examining the production planning and control operations
4. Internal Audit : According to the company objectives
Select the correct answer using the Code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
37. Four important acts performed by an Auditor in connection with an audit work are:
1. verification of assets and checking valuation of the same
2. checking of Annual Accounts and balance Sheet
3. preparation of an audit programme
4. test checking of financial transactions
The correct sequence in which these acts are
performed by the Auditor is
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c)3, 1,4,2
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans. (d)
38. Consider the following statements
The auditor is generally expected to carry out the following in a particular seriatim:
1. Verification of assets and liabilities
2. Vouching of transactions
3. Checking of valuation of assets and liabilities
The correct chronological sequence of these acts is:
(a) 1, 3, 2
(b) 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 3
(d) 3, 1, 2
Ans. (c)
39. Auditing is compulsory in case of:
(a) Joint-stock Company
(b) Charitable Trust
(c) Cooperative Society
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
40. Consider the following statements:
An ‘Internal Audit’ is not a part of:
1. Continuous Statutory Audit
2. Internal Check System
3. Internal Control System
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
41. Consider the following statements:
An ‘Internal Control System’ may include:
1. interim audit
2. internal audit
3. financial controls
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. (c)
42. According to the Companies Act, account books of a company are to be preserved for the preceding:
(a) six years
(b) eight years
(c) five years
(d) nine years
Ans. (b)
43. Consider the following functions:
1. Checking of valuation and physical verification of assets
2. Routine checking and vouching
3. Scrutiny of internal check system
The correct sequence of these functions to be performed by an Auditor during the course of auditing is
(a) 2, 1, 3
(b) 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 1
(d) 1, 2 , 3
Ans. (c)
44. Which of the following may be included in ‘Audit Working Paper’?
1. Audit notebook
2. Audit programmes
3. Schedules of sundry debtors and sundry creditors
4. Audit manuals
Select the correct answer using the Code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
45. Internal Auditor is appointed by the:
(a) Board of Directors of the Company
(b) shareholders of the Company
(c) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(d) Company Secretary
Ans. (a)
46. Financial audit in Joint-stock Company in India is:
(a) necessary
(b) voluntary
(c) statutory
(d) voluntary for companies which operate in certain activities only
Ans. (c)
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Transfer and transmission of shares is the same thing
2. ‘Stag’ is a speculative person who applies for shares in a new issue expected to be oversubscribed to make profit by selling such shares at a premium-
3. Stock is a bundle of fully paid shares put together for convenience
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (b)
48. Underwriters are persons who:
(a) purchase the shares and debentures of a company
(b) work as agents of the company for the sale of shares and debentures
(c) undertake to buy those shares and debentures not subscribe for by the public
(d) publicize the share-issue on behalf of the company
Ans. (c)
49. The movement of securities from one stock exchange to another with the object of reaping a profit from the disparity in share prices is called:
(a) averaging
(b) arbitraging
(c) backwardation
(d) forward trading
Ans. (b)
50. Which one of the following statements pertaining to mutual funds is true?
(a) Mutual funds can be operated only by government organizations
(b) The maximum investment in mutual funds by an individual should not exceed a particular ceiling fixed by government from time to time
(c) Return on investment and safety of principal is not guaranteed in mutual funds
(d) Unit Trust of India is the regulatory authority for mutual funds in India.
Ans. (b)
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